Judiciary 2026 Advanced Practice Set: 50 Conceptual MCQs for Prelims Excellence

A carefully curated set of 50 judiciary-level MCQs covering Constitutional Law, CPC, IPC, CrPC, Evidence, and core legal principles. Designed to strengthen conceptual clarity, analytical thinking, and accuracy for judiciary prelims exams.

1. Doctrine of Eclipse applies to:

A. Pre-constitutional laws

B. Post-constitutional laws

C. Both

D. None

2. Severability means:

A. Whole law invalid

B. Only offending part invalid

C. Law revived

D. Law repealed

3. Article 13 deals with:

A. Fundamental Rights

B. Laws inconsistent with FR

C. Directive Principles

D. Duties

4. Res sub judice is under CPC:

A. Sec 10

B. Sec 11

C. Sec 9

D. Sec 12

5. Res judicata applies when:

A. Same parties

B. Same issue

C. Final decision

D. All

6. Order 7 Rule 11 CPC deals with:

A. Rejection of plaint

B. Return of plaint

C. Framing of issues

D. Decree

7. Temporary injunction is under:

A. Order 39

B. Order 21

C. Order 6

D. Order 9

8. Review petition is under:

A. Sec 114 CPC

B. Sec 96 CPC

C. Sec 100 CPC

D. Sec 115 CPC

9. Second appeal lies under:

A. Sec 96

B. Sec 100

C. Sec 115

D. Sec 114

10. Caveat is under:

A. Sec 148A CPC

B. Sec 151 CPC

C. Sec 96 CPC

D. Sec 115 CPC

11. Culpable homicide becomes murder when:

A. No intention

B. Intention + knowledge

C. Negligence

D. Accident

12. Grave and sudden provocation is exception to:

A. Sec 299

B. Sec 300

C. Sec 302

D. Sec 304

13. Common object is under:

A. Sec 34

B. Sec 149

C. Sec 120A

D. Sec 107

14. Criminal breach of trust involves:

A. Dishonest misappropriation

B. Consent

C. Theft

D. Force

15. Forgery requires:

A. Intention to defraud

B. Consent

C. Negligence

D. Mistake

16. FIR is not required in:

A. Cognizable offence

B. Non-cognizable offence

C. Serious offence

D. Murder

17. Police report leads to:

A. Trial

B. Cognizance

C. Bail

D. Arrest

18. Discharge differs from acquittal because:

A. Before trial

B. After trial

C. Final decision

D. Same

19. Compounding requires:

A. Court permission always

B. Consent of parties

C. Police approval

D. Judge only

20. Plea bargaining excludes:

A. Minor offences

B. Serious offences

C. Civil cases

D. All

21. Admission is:

A. Conclusive

B. Not conclusive

C. Irrelevant

D. Mandatory

22. Confession is:

A. Admission

B. Stronger admission

C. Weak evidence

D. None

23. Dying declaration needs:

A. Oath

B. Magistrate

C. None necessarily

D. Police

24. Leading question allowed in:

A. Examination-in-chief

B. Cross-examination

C. Re-examination

D. None

25. Presumption under Sec 114 is:

A. Mandatory

B. Discretionary

C. Irrelevant

D. Absolute

26. Consideration may move from:

A. Promisee

B. Third party

C. Both

D. None

27. Privity of contract means:

A. Third party rights

B. Only parties can sue

C. Stranger can sue

D. Public right

28. Void agreement is:

A. Enforceable

B. Not enforceable

C. Illegal always

D. Valid

29. Specific performance is granted when:

A. Damages adequate

B. Damages inadequate

C. Illegal contract

D. Void contract

30. Free consent excludes:

A. Fraud

B. Coercion

C. Misrepresentation

D. All

31. Tort of nuisance protects:

A. Property

B. Person

C. Both

D. Reputation

32. Strict liability exception includes:

A. Act of God

B. Plaintiff’s fault

C. Consent

D. All

33. Defamation requires:

A. Publication

B. Intention

C. Damage

D. All

34. Negligence requires:

A. Duty

B. Breach

C. Damage

D. All

35. Judicial review is:

A. Basic structure

B. Not basic structure

C. Optional

D. Directive

36. Basic structure doctrine from:

A. Golaknath

B. Kesavananda Bharati

C. Minerva Mills

D. Maneka Gandhi

37. Article 32 is:

A. Fundamental Right

B. Legal Right

C. Directive

D. Optional

38. Writ of Mandamus is issued to:

A. Private person

B. Public authority

C. Company

D. Individual

39. Habeas Corpus ensures:

A. Property rights

B. Personal liberty

C. Tax rights

D. Contract

40. Certiorari is for:

A. Transfer

B. Quash order

C. Enforce duty

D. Arrest

41. Burden of proof lies on:

A. Accused

B. Plaintiff

C. Prosecution

D. Court

42. Circumstantial evidence must form:

A. Weak chain

B. Broken chain

C. Complete chain

D. Optional

43. Motive absence leads to:

A. Acquittal always

B. Irrelevant

C. Not fatal

D. Mandatory

44. Alibi must be:

A. Proved strictly

B. Ignored

C. Optional

D. Presumed

45. FIR delay affects:

A. Always fatal

B. Never fatal

C. Depends

D. Invalid

46. Charge must contain:

A. Offence details

B. Law

C. Facts

D. All

47. Evidence must be:

A. Direct always

B. Relevant

C. Documentary only

D. Oral only

48. Appeal is:

A. Right

B. Discretion

C. Optional

D. Not allowed

49. Revision is:

A. Right

B. Discretionary

C. Mandatory

D. Automatic

50. Natural justice includes:

A. Fair hearing

B. No bias

C. Both

D. None

✅ Answer Key

1. A

2. B

3. B

4. A

5. D

6. A

7. A

8. A

9. B

10. A

11. B

12. B

13. B

14. A

15. A

16. B

17. B

18. A

19. B

20. B

21. B

22. B

23. C

24. B

25. B

26. C

27. B

28. B

29. B

30. D

31. C

32. D

33. D

34. D

35. A

36. B

37. A

38. B

39. B

40. B

41. C

42. C

43. C

44. A

45. C

46. D

47. B

48. A

49. B

50. C

– Team Lawyer Talks

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