Challenge yourself with this advanced set of 50 LLM entrance exam MCQs covering Constitutional Law, Jurisprudence, International Law, IPC, Contract, and Legal Reasoning. Designed for aspirants preparing for top law universities and postgraduate entrance examinations.
1. The doctrine of basic structure was evolved in:
A. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
B. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
C. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
D. I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu
Answer: B
2. True or False: Parliament can destroy the identity of the Constitution through amendment.
Answer: False
3. “Salus populi suprema lex” means:
A. Law protects judges
B. Welfare of people is supreme law
C. Constitution is supreme
D. Equity prevails
Answer: B
4. Which Article guarantees equality before law?
A. Article 13
B. Article 14
C. Article 19
D. Article 21
Answer: B
5. Judicial review in India is derived from:
A. USA
B. UK
C. Canada
D. Australia
Answer: A
6. Under International Law, pacta sunt servanda means:
A. Agreements must be kept
B. States are equal
C. War is prohibited
D. Sovereignty is supreme
Answer: A
7. True or False: Custom is a source of International Law.
Answer: True
8. Extradition means:
A. Deportation
B. Transfer of accused/offender between states
C. Refugee protection
D. Asylum
Answer: B
9. ICJ stands for:
A. International Criminal Justice
B. International Court of Justice
C. International Civil Jurisdiction
D. International Constitutional Judiciary
Answer: B
10. The UN Charter came into force in:
A. 1942
B. 1945
C. 1947
D. 1950
Answer: B
11. “Ubi jus ibi remedium” means:
A. No remedy without law
B. Where there is a right, there is a remedy
C. Law is supreme
D. Equity follows law
Answer: B
12. Austin’s theory of law is known as:
A. Natural theory
B. Analytical positivism
C. Sociological theory
D. Historical theory
Answer: B
13. True or False: Savigny was supporter of Historical School.
Answer: True
14. Roscoe Pound is associated with:
A. Analytical School
B. Sociological School
C. Natural School
D. Philosophical School
Answer: B
15. Kelsen propounded:
A. Pure theory of law
B. Natural law
C. Social engineering
D. Command theory
Answer: A
16. Consideration under Indian Contract Act must be:
A. Adequate
B. Lawful
C. Written
D. Registered
Answer: B
17. Void agreement is defined under:
A. Section 2(g)
B. Section 2(h)
C. Section 10
D. Section 11
Answer: A
18. True or False: Minor’s agreement is void ab initio.
Answer: True
19. Quantum meruit means:
A. As much as earned
B. Beyond doubt
C. Good faith
D. Promise to pay
Answer: A
20. Privity of contract means:
A. Stranger can sue
B. Only parties can sue
C. Contract without consideration
D. Void agreement
Answer: B
21. Under IPC, “dishonestly” is defined under:
A. Section 23
B. Section 24
C. Section 25
D. Section 26
Answer: B
22. Theft is defined under:
A. Section 378
B. Section 390
C. Section 420
D. Section 405
Answer: A
23. True or False: Every murder is culpable homicide.
Answer: True
24. Criminal conspiracy is under:
A. Section 107
B. Section 120A
C. Section 34
D. Section 149
Answer: B
25. Common intention is under:
A. Section 34
B. Section 149
C. Section 120B
D. Section 511
Answer: A
26. Res judicata is contained in:
A. Section 9 CPC
B. Section 10 CPC
C. Section 11 CPC
D. Section 12 CPC
Answer: C
27. True or False: CPC is procedural law.
Answer: True
28. Decree is defined under:
A. Section 2(2) CPC
B. Section 2(3) CPC
C. Section 2(4) CPC
D. Section 2(5) CPC
Answer: A
29. Temporary injunction is governed under:
A. Order 7
B. Order 39
C. Order 41
D. Order 43
Answer: B
30. Caveat is provided under:
A. Section 148A CPC
B. Section 151 CPC
C. Section 144 CPC
D. Section 80 CPC
Answer: A
31. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A. Admissible
B. Inadmissible
C. Conclusive
D. Mandatory
Answer: B
32. True or False: Dying declaration is exception to hearsay rule.
Answer: True
33. Estoppel is defined under:
A. Section 114
B. Section 115
C. Section 116
D. Section 117
Answer: B
34. Burden of proof lies on:
A. Judge
B. Defendant
C. Person asserting fact
D. Witness
Answer: C
35. Expert opinion is relevant under:
A. Section 32
B. Section 45
C. Section 65
D. Section 73
Answer: B
36. “Volenti non fit injuria” is a defence in:
A. Crime
B. Tort
C. Contract
D. Evidence
Answer: B
37. True or False: Negligence requires duty of care.
Answer: True
38. Strict liability was evolved in:
A. Donoghue v. Stevenson
B. Rylands v. Fletcher
C. Ashby v. White
D. MC Mehta case
Answer: B
39. Defamation includes:
A. Libel
B. Slander
C. Both
D. None
Answer: C
40. “Injuria sine damno” means:
A. Damage without injury
B. Injury without damage
C. No remedy
D. Legal damage only
Answer: B
41. Article 21 includes:
A. Right to livelihood
B. Right to privacy
C. Right to dignity
D. All of the above
Answer: D
42. True or False: Right to Education is a Fundamental Right.
Answer: True
43. PIL stands for:
A. Personal Interest Litigation
B. Public Interest Litigation
C. Public Internal Law
D. Private International Law
Answer: B
44. Doctrine of eclipse applies to:
A. Post-constitutional laws
B. Pre-constitutional laws
C. Criminal laws
D. Tax laws
Answer: B
45. “Audi alteram partem” means:
A. No one should be judge in own cause
B. Hear the other side
C. Justice delayed
D. Law is equal
Answer: B
46. Arbitration and Conciliation Act was enacted in:
A. 1940
B. 1986
C. 1996
D. 2005
Answer: C
47. True or False: Lok Adalat award is binding on parties.
Answer: True
48. Review petition is filed before:
A. Same court
B. Higher court
C. Tribunal
D. Executive authority
Answer: A
49. Limitation Act bars:
A. Right
B. Remedy
C. Both
D. Neither
Answer: B
50. Standard of proof in civil cases is:
A. Beyond reasonable doubt
B. Suspicion
C. Preponderance of probabilities
D. Absolute proof
Answer: C
– Team Lawyer Talks