Sharpen your AIBE preparation with this advanced set of 50 MCQs focused on Bare Acts, Professional Ethics, IPC, CrPC, Evidence Act, Constitution, and practical legal application. Designed to match the conceptual and application-based pattern of the All India Bar Examination.
1. Under the Advocates Act, the Bar Council of India is constituted under:
A. Section 3
B. Section 4
C. Section 5
D. Section 7
Answer: B
2. True or False: Every advocate enrolled with State Bar Council must pass AIBE to practice law permanently.
Answer: True
3. Professional misconduct proceedings against advocate are initiated before:
A. Supreme Court
B. Bar Council disciplinary committee
C. Police authority
D. High Court directly
Answer: B
4. “Ubi jus ibi remedium” means:
A. Law protects contracts
B. Where there is a right, there is a remedy
C. Equity follows law
D. Ignorance excuses
Answer: B
5. Advertising by advocates in India is:
A. Fully permitted
B. Strictly prohibited with limited exceptions
C. Mandatory
D. Allowed on television
Answer: B
6. True or False: An advocate may appear in court without vakalatnama in all circumstances.
Answer: False
7. Under CPC, res judicata is provided under:
A. Section 9
B. Section 10
C. Section 11
D. Section 12
Answer: C
8. Res sub judice is governed under:
A. Section 10 CPC
B. Section 11 CPC
C. Section 80 CPC
D. Section 151 CPC
Answer: A
9. Caveat is filed under:
A. Section 80 CPC
B. Section 144 CPC
C. Section 148A CPC
D. Section 151 CPC
Answer: C
10. True or False: CPC is procedural law.
Answer: True
11. FIR is registered under:
A. Section 154 CrPC
B. Section 161 CrPC
C. Section 164 CrPC
D. Section 173 CrPC
Answer: A
12. Police report under CrPC is filed under:
A. Section 154
B. Section 161
C. Section 173
D. Section 190
Answer: C
13. True or False: Anticipatory bail is a statutory right.
Answer: False
14. Anticipatory bail is provided under:
A. Section 436
B. Section 437
C. Section 438
D. Section 439
Answer: C
15. Double jeopardy is protected under:
A. Article 19
B. Article 20(2)
C. Article 21
D. Article 22
Answer: B
16. Under Evidence Act, estoppel is defined under:
A. Section 114
B. Section 115
C. Section 116
D. Section 117
Answer: B
17. True or False: Hearsay evidence is generally inadmissible.
Answer: True
18. Dying declaration is relevant under:
A. Section 24
B. Section 32
C. Section 45
D. Section 65
Answer: B
19. Expert opinion is relevant under:
A. Section 32
B. Section 45
C. Section 73
D. Section 114
Answer: B
20. Burden of proof generally lies on:
A. Judge
B. Accused
C. Person asserting fact
D. Witness
Answer: C
21. Under IPC, “dishonestly” is defined under:
A. Section 23
B. Section 24
C. Section 25
D. Section 26
Answer: B
22. Theft is defined under:
A. Section 378
B. Section 390
C. Section 405
D. Section 415
Answer: A
23. True or False: Every murder is culpable homicide.
Answer: True
24. Common intention is provided under:
A. Section 34
B. Section 149
C. Section 120A
D. Section 511
Answer: A
25. Criminal conspiracy is defined under:
A. Section 107
B. Section 120A
C. Section 149
D. Section 503
Answer: B
26. Under Contract Act, consideration may move from:
A. Promisee only
B. Promisor only
C. Third party
D. Court
Answer: C
27. True or False: Minor’s agreement is void ab initio.
Answer: True
28. “Consensus ad idem” means:
A. Compensation
B. Meeting of minds
C. Quasi contract
D. Legal injury
Answer: B
29. Privity of contract means:
A. Stranger can sue
B. Only parties can sue
C. Contract without consideration
D. Void agreement
Answer: B
30. Quantum meruit is based on:
A. Equity
B. Crime
C. Tort
D. Constitutional law
Answer: A
31. “Volenti non fit injuria” is defence in:
A. Contract
B. Tort
C. Evidence
D. Crime
Answer: B
32. True or False: Negligence requires duty of care.
Answer: True
33. Strict liability principle was evolved in:
A. Donoghue v. Stevenson
B. Rylands v. Fletcher
C. Ashby v. White
D. MC Mehta
Answer: B
34. Absolute liability principle in India evolved in:
A. Kesavananda Bharati
B. MC Mehta
C. Golaknath
D. Maneka Gandhi
Answer: B
35. “Injuria sine damno” means:
A. Damage without injury
B. Legal injury without actual damage
C. No remedy
D. Compensation only
Answer: B
36. True or False: Damnum sine injuria is actionable.
Answer: False
37. Article 14 guarantees:
A. Freedom of speech
B. Equality before law
C. Freedom of religion
D. Constitutional remedies
Answer: B
38. Judicial review is part of:
A. Directive Principles
B. Basic structure
C. Preamble only
D. Emergency provisions
Answer: B
39. True or False: Parliament can destroy basic structure of Constitution.
Answer: False
40. Doctrine of eclipse applies to:
A. Post-constitutional laws
B. Pre-constitutional laws
C. Tax laws only
D. Criminal laws only
Answer: B
41. “Audi alteram partem” means:
A. Hear the other side
B. Law is supreme
C. Ignorance excuses
D. Equity follows law
Answer: A
42. “Nemo judex in causa sua” means:
A. Evidence must be direct
B. No one should judge own cause
C. Delay defeats equity
D. Justice delayed
Answer: B
43. True or False: Article 32 is itself a Fundamental Right.
Answer: True
44. Lok Adalat award is:
A. Advisory
B. Binding
C. Optional
D. Appeal automatically lies
Answer: B
45. Arbitration and Conciliation Act was enacted in:
A. 1940
B. 1986
C. 1996
D. 2005
Answer: C
46. PIL stands for:
A. Public Interest Litigation
B. Private Interest Law
C. Public Internal Law
D. Personal Injury Litigation
Answer: A
47. True or False: Appeal is a statutory right.
Answer: True
48. Limitation Act bars:
A. Right
B. Remedy
C. Both
D. Neither
Answer: B
49. Standard of proof in civil cases is:
A. Beyond reasonable doubt
B. Absolute certainty
C. Preponderance of probabilities
D. Suspicion
Answer: C
50. Standard of proof in criminal cases is:
A. Prima facie satisfaction
B. Suspicion
C. Beyond reasonable doubt
D. Preponderance of probabilities
Answer: C
– Team Lawyer Talks