Judiciary MCQs of 50 Questions: Extreme – Level Judicial Services Challenge

Prepare for competitive Judicial Services examinations with this extreme-level set of 50 MCQs designed to test advanced legal reasoning, Bare Act precision, and conceptual clarity. Covering Constitution, IPC, CrPC, CPC, Evidence, Contract, Tort, Jurisprudence, and landmark legal principles, this set is ideal for serious judiciary aspirants.


1. The doctrine of basic structure was evolved in:
A. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
B. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
C. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
D. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
Answer: B

2. True or False: Judicial review forms part of the basic structure doctrine.
Answer: True

3. Article 13 primarily deals with:
A. Citizenship
B. Laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights
C. Emergency provisions
D. Directive Principles
Answer: B

4. Doctrine of eclipse applies to:
A. Post-constitutional laws only
B. Pre-constitutional laws violating Fundamental Rights
C. Emergency legislation only
D. Constitutional amendments
Answer: B

5. “Colorable legislation” means legislature:
A. Acts retrospectively
B. Indirectly does what it cannot directly do
C. Violates natural justice
D. Delegates excessive power
Answer: B

6. True or False: Parliament can destroy basic structure through amendment.
Answer: False

7. “Audi alteram partem” embodies:
A. Rule against bias
B. Fair hearing principle
C. Rule of evidence
D. Constitutional supremacy
Answer: B

8. “Nemo judex in causa sua” means:
A. Hear the other side
B. No one should judge own cause
C. Law protects rights
D. Justice delayed is justice denied
Answer: B

9. Res judicata is contained under:
A. Section 9 CPC
B. Section 10 CPC
C. Section 11 CPC
D. Section 151 CPC
Answer: C

10. True or False: Res sub judice is governed under Section 10 CPC.
Answer: True

11. Caveat is filed under:
A. Section 80 CPC
B. Section 144 CPC
C. Section 148A CPC
D. Section 151 CPC
Answer: C

12. Appeal is considered a:
A. Natural right
B. Constitutional right
C. Statutory right
D. Human right
Answer: C

13. Review petition ordinarily lies before:
A. Higher court
B. Same court
C. Tribunal only
D. Executive authority
Answer: B

14. True or False: CPC is substantive law.
Answer: False

15. FIR is registered under:
A. Section 154 CrPC
B. Section 156 CrPC
C. Section 161 CrPC
D. Section 173 CrPC
Answer: A

16. Anticipatory bail is granted under:
A. Section 436 CrPC
B. Section 437 CrPC
C. Section 438 CrPC
D. Section 439 CrPC
Answer: C

17. Cognizance of offence is taken under:
A. Section 154 CrPC
B. Section 156 CrPC
C. Section 190 CrPC
D. Section 200 CrPC
Answer: C

18. True or False: FIR is substantive evidence.
Answer: False

19. Maximum police custody ordinarily permissible under CrPC is:
A. 7 days
B. 10 days
C. 15 days
D. 30 days
Answer: C

20. Double jeopardy protection is guaranteed under:
A. Article 19
B. Article 20(2)
C. Article 21
D. Article 22
Answer: B

21. Confession before police officer is generally:
A. Admissible
B. Inadmissible
C. Conclusive proof
D. Mandatory evidence
Answer: B

22. True or False: Hearsay evidence is generally inadmissible.
Answer: True

23. Dying declaration is admissible under:
A. Section 24 Evidence Act
B. Section 32 Evidence Act
C. Section 45 Evidence Act
D. Section 65 Evidence Act
Answer: B

24. “Res gestae” is embodied under:
A. Section 5 Evidence Act
B. Section 6 Evidence Act
C. Section 24 Evidence Act
D. Section 32 Evidence Act
Answer: B

25. Expert opinion becomes relevant under:
A. Section 32 Evidence Act
B. Section 45 Evidence Act
C. Section 73 Evidence Act
D. Section 114 Evidence Act
Answer: B

26. Accomplice evidence is:
A. Inadmissible
B. Substantive evidence
C. Illegal evidence
D. Secondary evidence
Answer: B

27. True or False: Corroboration of accomplice evidence is rule of prudence.
Answer: True

28. Under IPC, “dishonestly” is defined under:
A. Section 23 IPC
B. Section 24 IPC
C. Section 25 IPC
D. Section 52 IPC
Answer: B

29. Theft is defined under:
A. Section 378 IPC
B. Section 390 IPC
C. Section 405 IPC
D. Section 415 IPC
Answer: A

30. “Mens rea” generally means:
A. Guilty act
B. Guilty intention
C. Wrongful restraint
D. Negligence
Answer: B

31. True or False: Every murder is culpable homicide but not vice versa.
Answer: True

32. Common intention is embodied under:
A. Section 34 IPC
B. Section 149 IPC
C. Section 120A IPC
D. Section 511 IPC
Answer: A

33. Criminal conspiracy is defined under:
A. Section 107 IPC
B. Section 120A IPC
C. Section 149 IPC
D. Section 503 IPC
Answer: B

34. Right of private defence extending to death is available under:
A. Section 96 IPC
B. Section 97 IPC
C. Section 100 IPC
D. Section 101 IPC
Answer: C

35. True or False: Mistake of law is valid defence under IPC.
Answer: False

36. Consideration under Indian Contract Act may move from:
A. Promisee only
B. Promisor only
C. Third party
D. Court
Answer: C

37. Minor’s agreement is:
A. Voidable
B. Illegal
C. Void ab initio
D. Enforceable conditionally
Answer: C

38. “Consensus ad idem” means:
A. Compensation
B. Meeting of minds
C. Legal injury
D. Estoppel
Answer: B

39. Quantum meruit claim is based on:
A. Equity
B. Crime
C. Tort
D. Constitutional law
Answer: A

40. True or False: Every agreement is enforceable contract.
Answer: False

41. “Volenti non fit injuria” is defence in:
A. Contract
B. Tort
C. Crime
D. Evidence
Answer: B

42. Rylands v. Fletcher established doctrine of:
A. Negligence
B. Absolute liability
C. Strict liability
D. Constitutional tort
Answer: C

43. Absolute liability principle in India evolved through:
A. Kesavananda Bharati
B. MC Mehta
C. Golaknath
D. Maneka Gandhi
Answer: B

44. True or False: Negligence requires duty of care.
Answer: True

45. “Injuria sine damno” means:
A. Damage without injury
B. Legal injury without actual damage
C. Tort without remedy
D. Strict liability without fault
Answer: B

46. “Ubi jus ibi remedium” means:
A. Equity follows law
B. Law protects rights with remedies
C. Ignorance excuses no one
D. Justice delayed is justice denied
Answer: B

47. True or False: Article 32 itself is a Fundamental Right.
Answer: True

48. Lok Adalat award is:
A. Advisory only
B. Binding on parties
C. Temporary order
D. Automatically appealable
Answer: B

49. Standard of proof in criminal cases is:
A. Preponderance of probabilities
B. Beyond reasonable doubt
C. Suspicion
D. Prima facie proof
Answer: B

50. Standard of proof in civil cases is generally:
A. Beyond reasonable doubt
B. Mathematical certainty
C. Preponderance of probabilities
D. Absolute proof
Answer: C

– Team Lawyer Talks

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