Prepare for top LLM entrance examinations with this advanced mixed-format set of 50 questions covering Constitutional Law, Jurisprudence, International Law, Contract, Tort, IPC, Evidence, and analytical legal reasoning. Designed for aspirants targeting NLUs and premier universities through conceptual, assertion-reasoning, statement-based, case-based, and analytical questions.
1. The doctrine of basic structure was evolved in:
A. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
B. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
C. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
D. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
Answer: B
2. True or False: Judicial review forms part of the basic structure doctrine.
Answer: True
3. “Procedure established by law” acquired substantive due process interpretation in:
A. AK Gopalan
B. Maneka Gandhi
C. Shankari Prasad
D. Golaknath
Answer: B
4. Doctrine of eclipse applies to:
A. Constitutional amendments only
B. Pre-constitutional laws violating Fundamental Rights
C. Tax statutes only
D. Emergency legislation exclusively
Answer: B
5. Assertion: Article 32 itself is a Fundamental Right.
Reason: Dr. Ambedkar described it as the heart and soul of Constitution.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
6. “Audi alteram partem” means:
A. No one should judge own cause
B. Hear the other side
C. Law excuses no one
D. Facts speak for themselves
Answer: B
7. True or False: Parliament can destroy basic structure through constitutional amendment.
Answer: False
8. “Nemo judex in causa sua” primarily relates to:
A. Burden of proof
B. Rule against bias
C. Strict liability
D. Res judicata
Answer: B
9. H.L.A. Hart distinguished between:
A. Sovereignty and sanctions
B. Primary and secondary rules
C. Morality and ethics
D. Rights and duties
Answer: B
10. Austin’s theory of law is mainly associated with:
A. Historical school
B. Sociological school
C. Analytical positivism
D. Natural law
Answer: C
11. True or False: Savigny associated law with Volksgeist.
Answer: True
12. Kelsen’s Grundnorm refers to:
A. Judicial precedent
B. Foundational norm giving validity to legal system
C. Sovereign command
D. Constitutional morality
Answer: B
13. Roscoe Pound viewed law as instrument of:
A. Sovereign authority
B. Social engineering
C. Historical evolution
D. Moral obligation
Answer: B
14. “Opinio juris” is essential element of:
A. Treaty law
B. Diplomatic immunity
C. Customary international law
D. Extradition
Answer: C
15. Assertion: Monism treats international and municipal law as unified legal system.
Reason: Monism rejects strict separation between both systems.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
16. True or False: Jus cogens norms can be overridden through treaty.
Answer: False
17. Vienna Convention on Law of Treaties was adopted in:
A. 1945
B. 1948
C. 1969
D. 1986
Answer: C
18. ICJ decisions are binding:
A. On all UN members
B. Only on parties to dispute
C. As universal precedent
D. On Security Council only
Answer: B
19. “Res ipsa loquitur” relates to:
A. Constitutional law
B. Tortious negligence
C. Criminal conspiracy
D. Contractual liability
Answer: B
20. Rylands v. Fletcher established doctrine of:
A. Negligence
B. Absolute liability
C. Strict liability
D. Constitutional tort
Answer: C
21. True or False: Damnum sine injuria is actionable in tort law.
Answer: False
22. MC Mehta case evolved principle of:
A. Strict liability
B. Absolute liability
C. Vicarious liability
D. Remoteness of damages
Answer: B
23. “Volenti non fit injuria” means:
A. Damage without injury
B. Consent negates injury
C. Facts speak for themselves
D. Wrong without remedy
Answer: B
24. Consideration under Indian Contract Act may move from:
A. Promisee only
B. Promisor only
C. Third party
D. Court only
Answer: C
25. Assertion: Minor’s agreement is void ab initio.
Reason: Minor lacks contractual capacity under Contract Act.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
26. True or False: Every agreement is enforceable by law.
Answer: False
27. “Consensus ad idem” means:
A. Compensation
B. Meeting of minds
C. Legal injury
D. Strict liability
Answer: B
28. Quantum meruit claim is based upon:
A. Crime
B. Equity
C. Constitutional law
D. Tort only
Answer: B
29. Anticipatory breach allows aggrieved party to:
A. Wait compulsorily till due date
B. Sue immediately for damages
C. Seek criminal prosecution only
D. Ignore breach
Answer: B
30. True or False: Motive and intention are identical concepts in criminal law.
Answer: False
31. Culpable homicide becomes murder when:
A. Knowledge absent
B. Conditions under Section 300 IPC satisfied
C. Negligence established
D. Motive absent
Answer: B
32. Common intention is embodied under:
A. Section 34 IPC
B. Section 149 IPC
C. Section 120A IPC
D. Section 511 IPC
Answer: A
33. “Mens rea” generally signifies:
A. Guilty act
B. Guilty intention
C. Legal injury
D. Wrongful gain
Answer: B
34. Assertion: Criminal conspiracy is complete upon agreement.
Reason: Actual commission of offence is unnecessary in many cases.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
35. True or False: Mistake of law is valid defence under IPC.
Answer: False
36. FIR is registered under:
A. Section 154 CrPC
B. Section 156 CrPC
C. Section 161 CrPC
D. Section 173 CrPC
Answer: A
37. Dying declaration is relevant under:
A. Section 24 Evidence Act
B. Section 32 Evidence Act
C. Section 45 Evidence Act
D. Section 65 Evidence Act
Answer: B
38. “Res gestae” is embodied under:
A. Section 5 Evidence Act
B. Section 6 Evidence Act
C. Section 24 Evidence Act
D. Section 114 Evidence Act
Answer: B
39. Expert opinion becomes relevant under:
A. Section 32 Evidence Act
B. Section 45 Evidence Act
C. Section 73 Evidence Act
D. Section 115 Evidence Act
Answer: B
40. True or False: Hearsay evidence is generally inadmissible.
Answer: True
41. Accomplice evidence is:
A. Inadmissible
B. Substantive evidence
C. Secondary evidence
D. Illegal evidence
Answer: B
42. Standard of proof in criminal cases is:
A. Preponderance of probabilities
B. Beyond reasonable doubt
C. Prima facie satisfaction
D. Suspicion
Answer: B
43. Assertion: Appeal is statutory right.
Reason: No appeal exists without legal provision.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
44. Res judicata is governed under:
A. Section 9 CPC
B. Section 10 CPC
C. Section 11 CPC
D. Section 151 CPC
Answer: C
45. True or False: Review petition ordinarily lies before same court.
Answer: True
46. Caveat is filed under:
A. Section 80 CPC
B. Section 144 CPC
C. Section 148A CPC
D. Section 151 CPC
Answer: C
47. “Ubi jus ibi remedium” means:
A. Facts speak for themselves
B. Where there is right, there is remedy
C. Law excuses none
D. Equity follows law
Answer: B
48. “Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea” means:
A. Guilty act alone sufficient
B. Guilty act with guilty mind constitutes offence
C. Facts speak for themselves
D. Wrong without remedy
Answer: B
49. True or False: Standard of proof in civil cases is beyond reasonable doubt.
Answer: False
50. Standard of proof in civil cases is generally:
A. Beyond reasonable doubt
B. Mathematical certainty
C. Preponderance of probabilities
D. Absolute proof
Answer: C
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