Prepare effectively for the All India Bar Examination with this advanced mixed-format set of 50 MCQs designed to strengthen Bare Act understanding, legal reasoning, and practical application skills. Covers Professional Ethics, IPC, CrPC, CPC, Evidence, Constitution, Contract, Tort, and courtroom-oriented concepts through analytical and exam-level questions.
1. The disciplinary jurisdiction over advocates primarily vests in:
A. Supreme Court
B. District Court
C. Bar Council Disciplinary Committee
D. High Court only
Answer: C
2. True or False: An advocate has a statutory right to practice throughout India after enrollment.
Answer: True
3. “Ubi jus ibi remedium” means:
A. Law excuses none
B. Facts speak for themselves
C. Where there is a right, there is a remedy
D. Equity follows law
Answer: C
4. Contingency fee agreements between advocate and client are generally:
A. Fully valid
B. Professionally unethical
C. Constitutionally protected
D. Mandatory in civil cases
Answer: B
5. Assertion: Advocates are officers of the court.
Reason: Advocates owe duty toward court administration and justice.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
6. Res judicata under CPC is based on principle of:
A. Judicial bias
B. Finality of litigation
C. Criminal liability
D. Constitutional supremacy
Answer: B
7. True or False: Res sub judice is governed under Section 11 CPC.
Answer: False
8. Caveat under CPC is filed to:
A. Obtain injunction
B. Prevent ex parte order
C. Transfer suit
D. Review judgment
Answer: B
9. Appeal is considered a:
A. Natural right
B. Human right
C. Statutory right
D. Moral right
Answer: C
10. A decree passed without territorial jurisdiction is generally:
A. Always void
B. Irregular but often curable
C. Criminal offence
D. Automatically unconstitutional
Answer: B
11. FIR may be lodged by:
A. Victim only
B. Eye-witness only
C. Any person aware of cognizable offence
D. Magistrate only
Answer: C
12. True or False: FIR is substantive evidence.
Answer: False
13. Anticipatory bail is granted under:
A. Section 436 CrPC
B. Section 437 CrPC
C. Section 438 CrPC
D. Section 439 CrPC
Answer: C
14. Cognizance means:
A. Conviction of accused
B. Judicial application of mind to offence
C. Police investigation
D. Framing of charge
Answer: B
15. Assertion: Bail is rule and jail is exception.
Reason: Presumption of innocence operates until conviction.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
16. Dying declaration is relevant under:
A. Section 24 Evidence Act
B. Section 32 Evidence Act
C. Section 45 Evidence Act
D. Section 65 Evidence Act
Answer: B
17. True or False: Hearsay evidence is always inadmissible without exception.
Answer: False
18. “Res gestae” is embodied under:
A. Section 5 Evidence Act
B. Section 6 Evidence Act
C. Section 24 Evidence Act
D. Section 114 Evidence Act
Answer: B
19. Expert opinion becomes relevant under:
A. Section 32 Evidence Act
B. Section 45 Evidence Act
C. Section 73 Evidence Act
D. Section 115 Evidence Act
Answer: B
20. Accomplice evidence is:
A. Inadmissible
B. Substantive evidence
C. Secondary evidence
D. Illegal evidence
Answer: B
21. Theft is defined under:
A. Section 378 IPC
B. Section 390 IPC
C. Section 405 IPC
D. Section 415 IPC
Answer: A
22. True or False: Every murder is culpable homicide.
Answer: True
23. “Mens rea” generally means:
A. Guilty act
B. Guilty intention
C. Legal injury
D. Negligence
Answer: B
24. Common intention is embodied under:
A. Section 34 IPC
B. Section 149 IPC
C. Section 120A IPC
D. Section 511 IPC
Answer: A
25. A and B jointly attack C after prior planning. Liability of B mainly arises through:
A. Section 149 IPC
B. Section 34 IPC
C. Section 120B IPC only
D. Section 511 IPC
Answer: B
26. Assertion: Criminal conspiracy is complete upon agreement.
Reason: Actual commission of offence is unnecessary in many cases.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
27. True or False: Mistake of law is valid defence under IPC.
Answer: False
28. Criminal breach of trust requires:
A. Entrustment of property
B. Mere possession only
C. Negligence alone
D. Civil liability only
Answer: A
29. Consideration under Indian Contract Act may move from:
A. Promisee only
B. Promisor only
C. Third party
D. Court only
Answer: C
30. Minor’s agreement is:
A. Voidable
B. Illegal
C. Void ab initio
D. Enforceable conditionally
Answer: C
31. Assertion: Every agreement is not enforceable by law.
Reason: Only agreements fulfilling essentials of valid contract become contracts.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
32. “Consensus ad idem” means:
A. Compensation
B. Meeting of minds
C. Legal injury
D. Strict liability
Answer: B
33. True or False: Every breach of contract amounts to cheating.
Answer: False
34. “Volenti non fit injuria” is defence in:
A. Contract
B. Tort
C. Crime
D. Evidence
Answer: B
35. Rylands v. Fletcher established doctrine of:
A. Negligence
B. Absolute liability
C. Strict liability
D. Constitutional tort
Answer: C
36. MC Mehta case evolved principle of:
A. Strict liability
B. Absolute liability
C. Vicarious liability
D. Remoteness of damages
Answer: B
37. Assertion: Negligence requires duty of care.
Reason: Mere accident automatically creates tortious liability.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: C
38. “Injuria sine damno” means:
A. Damage without legal injury
B. Legal injury without actual damage
C. Tort without fault
D. Wrong without remedy
Answer: B
39. Article 14 guarantees:
A. Freedom of religion
B. Equality before law
C. Freedom of speech
D. Cultural rights
Answer: B
40. True or False: Judicial review forms part of basic structure doctrine.
Answer: True
41. Doctrine of eclipse applies to:
A. Constitutional amendments only
B. Pre-constitutional laws violating Fundamental Rights
C. Emergency legislation only
D. Tax statutes only
Answer: B
42. “Audi alteram partem” means:
A. No one should judge own cause
B. Hear the other side
C. Equity follows law
D. Facts speak for themselves
Answer: B
43. Assertion: Article 32 itself is a Fundamental Right.
Reason: Dr. Ambedkar called it heart and soul of Constitution.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
44. Lok Adalat award is:
A. Advisory only
B. Binding on parties
C. Temporary order
D. Automatically appealable
Answer: B
45. “Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea” means:
A. Guilty act alone sufficient
B. Guilty act with guilty mind constitutes offence
C. Facts speak for themselves
D. Equity follows law
Answer: B
46. True or False: Standard of proof in civil cases is beyond reasonable doubt.
Answer: False
47. Standard of proof in criminal cases is:
A. Preponderance of probabilities
B. Beyond reasonable doubt
C. Suspicion
D. Prima facie satisfaction
Answer: B
48. A witness intentionally giving false evidence commits:
A. Sedition
B. Perjury
C. Defamation
D. Criminal intimidation
Answer: B
49. Assertion: Ignorance of law is no excuse.
Reason: Everyone is presumed to know law.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
50. “Nemo judex in causa sua” primarily relates to:
A. Burden of proof
B. Rule against bias
C. Strict liability
D. Estoppel
Answer: B
– Team Lawyer Talks