Prepare smarter for Judicial Services examinations with this advanced mixed-format MCQ set specially curated for serious judiciary aspirants. Covering Constitutional Law, IPC, CrPC, CPC, Evidence, Contract, Tort, Jurisprudence, and legal maxims through analytical, assertion-reasoning, case-based, statement-oriented, and conceptual questions.
1. The doctrine of severability applies when:
A. Entire statute must always become void
B. Valid portion of statute can survive independently
C. President declares emergency
D. Court refuses judicial review
Answer: B
2. True or False: Judicial review is part of the basic structure doctrine.
Answer: True
3. “Procedure established by law” acquired substantive due process interpretation in:
A. AK Gopalan
B. Kesavananda Bharati
C. Maneka Gandhi
D. Minerva Mills
Answer: C
4. “Nemo judex in causa sua” means:
A. Facts speak for themselves
B. Hear the other side
C. No one should be judge in own cause
D. Equity follows law
Answer: C
5. Assertion: Article 32 itself is a Fundamental Right.
Reason: It provides constitutional remedies for enforcement of rights.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
6. Doctrine of eclipse applies mainly to:
A. Post-constitutional laws only
B. Pre-constitutional laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights
C. Taxation laws only
D. Emergency provisions
Answer: B
7. True or False: Parliament may amend every part of Constitution without limitation.
Answer: False
8. Article 14 embodies:
A. Absolute equality
B. Reasonable classification
C. Preventive detention
D. Double jeopardy
Answer: B
9. Res judicata is governed under:
A. Section 9 CPC
B. Section 10 CPC
C. Section 11 CPC
D. Section 151 CPC
Answer: C
10. Res sub judice is provided under:
A. Section 9 CPC
B. Section 10 CPC
C. Section 11 CPC
D. Section 115 CPC
Answer: B
11. True or False: CPC is both procedural and substantive law.
Answer: False
12. Caveat is filed under:
A. Section 80 CPC
B. Section 144 CPC
C. Section 148A CPC
D. Section 151 CPC
Answer: C
13. Temporary injunction is governed under:
A. Order 7 CPC
B. Order 21 CPC
C. Order 39 CPC
D. Order 9 CPC
Answer: C
14. Appeal is considered a:
A. Natural right
B. Human right
C. Statutory right
D. Constitutional right
Answer: C
15. Assertion: Review petition ordinarily lies before same court.
Reason: Review corrects apparent error on face of record.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
16. FIR is registered under:
A. Section 154 CrPC
B. Section 156 CrPC
C. Section 161 CrPC
D. Section 173 CrPC
Answer: A
17. True or False: FIR is substantive evidence.
Answer: False
18. Anticipatory bail is granted under:
A. Section 436 CrPC
B. Section 437 CrPC
C. Section 438 CrPC
D. Section 439 CrPC
Answer: C
19. Cognizance means:
A. Police investigation
B. Judicial application of mind to offence
C. Conviction
D. Framing of charge
Answer: B
20. Confession before police officer is generally:
A. Admissible
B. Inadmissible
C. Conclusive proof
D. Secondary evidence
Answer: B
21. Assertion: Bail is rule and jail is exception.
Reason: Presumption of innocence exists until conviction.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
22. Dying declaration is relevant under:
A. Section 24 Evidence Act
B. Section 32 Evidence Act
C. Section 45 Evidence Act
D. Section 65 Evidence Act
Answer: B
23. True or False: Hearsay evidence is generally inadmissible.
Answer: True
24. “Res gestae” is embodied under:
A. Section 5 Evidence Act
B. Section 6 Evidence Act
C. Section 24 Evidence Act
D. Section 114 Evidence Act
Answer: B
25. Expert opinion becomes relevant under:
A. Section 32 Evidence Act
B. Section 45 Evidence Act
C. Section 73 Evidence Act
D. Section 115 Evidence Act
Answer: B
26. Circumstantial evidence must form:
A. Mere suspicion
B. Complete chain pointing toward guilt
C. Weak probability
D. Prima facie opinion only
Answer: B
27. True or False: Motive and intention are identical concepts.
Answer: False
28. Theft is defined under:
A. Section 378 IPC
B. Section 390 IPC
C. Section 405 IPC
D. Section 415 IPC
Answer: A
29. “Mens rea” generally signifies:
A. Guilty act
B. Guilty intention
C. Negligence
D. Legal injury
Answer: B
30. Common intention is embodied under:
A. Section 34 IPC
B. Section 149 IPC
C. Section 120A IPC
D. Section 511 IPC
Answer: A
31. A and B jointly attack C after prior planning. Liability of B mainly arises through:
A. Section 149 IPC
B. Section 34 IPC
C. Section 120B IPC only
D. Section 511 IPC
Answer: B
32. Assertion: Every murder is culpable homicide.
Reason: Murder is aggravated species of culpable homicide.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
33. True or False: Mistake of law is valid defence under IPC.
Answer: False
34. Right of private defence causing death is available under:
A. Section 96 IPC
B. Section 97 IPC
C. Section 100 IPC
D. Section 101 IPC
Answer: C
35. Criminal conspiracy is defined under:
A. Section 107 IPC
B. Section 120A IPC
C. Section 149 IPC
D. Section 503 IPC
Answer: B
36. Consideration under Indian Contract Act may move from:
A. Promisee only
B. Promisor only
C. Third party
D. Court only
Answer: C
37. Minor’s agreement is:
A. Voidable
B. Illegal
C. Void ab initio
D. Enforceable
Answer: C
38. “Consensus ad idem” means:
A. Compensation
B. Meeting of minds
C. Legal injury
D. Strict liability
Answer: B
39. Assertion: Every agreement enforceable by law is a contract.
Reason: Enforceability is essential element of valid contract.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
40. “Volenti non fit injuria” is defence in:
A. Crime
B. Tort
C. Evidence
D. Constitution
Answer: B
41. Rylands v. Fletcher established doctrine of:
A. Negligence
B. Absolute liability
C. Strict liability
D. Constitutional tort
Answer: C
42. True or False: Negligence requires duty of care.
Answer: True
43. MC Mehta case evolved principle of:
A. Strict liability
B. Absolute liability
C. Vicarious liability
D. Remoteness of damages
Answer: B
44. “Injuria sine damno” means:
A. Damage without legal injury
B. Legal injury without actual damage
C. Tort without fault
D. Wrong without remedy
Answer: B
45. Assertion: Ignorance of law is no excuse.
Reason: Everyone is presumed to know law.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
46. Lok Adalat award is:
A. Advisory only
B. Binding on parties
C. Temporary order
D. Automatically appealable
Answer: B
47. “Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea” means:
A. Facts speak for themselves
B. Guilty act with guilty mind constitutes offence
C. Equity follows law
D. Wrong without remedy
Answer: B
48. True or False: Standard of proof in civil cases is beyond reasonable doubt.
Answer: False
49. Standard of proof in criminal cases is:
A. Preponderance of probabilities
B. Beyond reasonable doubt
C. Prima facie satisfaction
D. Suspicion
Answer: B
50. Standard of proof in civil cases is generally:
A. Beyond reasonable doubt
B. Mathematical certainty
C. Preponderance of probabilities
D. Absolute proof
Answer: C
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