Test your preparation with this extreme-level AIBE practice set crafted for aspirants seeking high-difficulty legal reasoning and Bare Act application. This set includes analytical, conceptual, assertion-reasoning, procedural, ethics-based, and case-oriented questions from Professional Ethics, IPC, CrPC, CPC, Evidence, Constitution, Contract, and Tort Law.
1. An advocate secretly communicating with opposite party during pendency of litigation may primarily violate:
A. Doctrine of estoppel
B. Professional ethics and fiduciary duty
C. Rule against hearsay
D. Doctrine of severability
Answer: B
2. True or False: An advocate may withdraw from engagement without sufficient cause after accepting vakalatnama.
Answer: False
3. “Salus populi suprema lex” means:
A. Law punishes all equally
B. Welfare of people is supreme law
C. Ignorance excuses none
D. Equity follows law
Answer: B
4. Assertion: Professional misconduct need not always involve moral turpitude.
Reason: Conduct violating standards of profession may itself amount to misconduct.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
5. Res judicata applies even to:
A. Purely academic disputes only
B. Issues constructively in issue
C. Criminal prosecutions only
D. Administrative instructions only
Answer: B
6. True or False: Inherent powers under Section 151 CPC can override express provisions of CPC.
Answer: False
7. A decree passed against dead person without substitution is generally:
A. Perfectly valid
B. Irregular but enforceable
C. Nullity
D. Constitutional violation only
Answer: C
8. Temporary injunction may be refused when:
A. Prima facie case absent
B. Balance of convenience absent
C. Irreparable injury absent
D. All of the above
Answer: D
9. Appeal is continuation of:
A. Investigation
B. Original proceedings
C. Arbitration
D. Constitutional remedy
Answer: B
10. Assertion: Review jurisdiction is narrower than appellate jurisdiction.
Reason: Review corrects patent error rather than rehearing merits.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
11. FIR may be lodged by:
A. Victim only
B. Police officer only
C. Any person aware of commission of cognizable offence
D. Magistrate exclusively
Answer: C
12. True or False: Delay in lodging FIR is always fatal to prosecution case.
Answer: False
13. Anticipatory bail under CrPC primarily protects:
A. Convicted person
B. Person apprehending arrest
C. Juvenile offender only
D. Witnesses exclusively
Answer: B
14. Confession recorded under Section 164 CrPC must be:
A. Recorded by police officer
B. Voluntary and judicially supervised
C. Made before complainant
D. Supported by affidavit compulsorily
Answer: B
15. Assertion: Retracted confession may form basis of conviction.
Reason: Courts may rely upon it if corroborated materially.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
16. Dying declaration recorded by police officer is:
A. Automatically inadmissible
B. Admissible if voluntary and reliable
C. Secondary evidence only
D. Valid only after oath
Answer: B
17. True or False: Hearsay evidence has absolutely no exceptions under Indian Evidence Act.
Answer: False
18. “Res gestae” doctrine permits admissibility because such facts are:
A. Irrelevant but persuasive
B. Part of same transaction
C. Expert opinions only
D. Secondary evidence
Answer: B
19. Expert opinion is treated as:
A. Binding proof
B. Advisory evidence requiring judicial evaluation
C. Conclusive evidence
D. Privileged communication
Answer: B
20. Accomplice testimony becomes unsafe when:
A. Entirely uncorroborated in material particulars
B. Witness is educated
C. Accused admits presence
D. FIR exists
Answer: A
21. Theft transforms into robbery when:
A. Property movable
B. Violence or fear accompanies taking
C. Property entrusted
D. Written agreement absent
Answer: B
22. True or False: Every murder is culpable homicide but every culpable homicide is not murder.
Answer: True
23. “Mens rea” is generally irrelevant in:
A. Strict liability offences
B. Theft
C. Cheating
D. Conspiracy
Answer: A
24. Common intention under Section 34 IPC may develop:
A. Only through written agreement
B. Instantly before occurrence
C. Only after offence completed
D. Exclusively through conspiracy
Answer: B
25. Mere presence at scene of offence attracts Section 34 IPC when:
A. Presence coupled with participation and common intention
B. Accused is relative of offender
C. FIR mentions name
D. Police suspects involvement
Answer: A
26. Assertion: Criminal conspiracy is independent substantive offence.
Reason: Agreement itself constitutes essence of conspiracy.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
27. True or False: Mistake of fact may negative mens rea in appropriate cases.
Answer: True
28. Criminal breach of trust differs from cheating because cheating involves:
A. Entrustment only
B. Dishonest inducement at inception
C. Mere negligence
D. Strict liability
Answer: B
29. Consideration may be past under:
A. English law only
B. Indian Contract Act
C. Constitutional law only
D. Tort law only
Answer: B
30. Minor obtaining loan through misrepresentation generally:
A. Makes contract enforceable
B. Creates estoppel against minor
C. Does not validate void agreement
D. Converts agreement into voidable contract
Answer: C
31. Assertion: Free consent is essential for valid contract.
Reason: Consent caused by coercion, fraud, or undue influence affects enforceability.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
32. “Consensus ad idem” fails when parties misunderstand:
A. Consideration amount only
B. Subject matter fundamentally
C. Place of execution only
D. Witness signatures
Answer: B
33. True or False: Mere silence always amounts to fraud under Contract Act.
Answer: False
34. “Volenti non fit injuria” fails as defence when:
A. Consent free and informed
B. Consent obtained under compulsion
C. Plaintiff knew risk voluntarily
D. Harm foreseeable
Answer: B
35. Rylands v. Fletcher liability primarily depends upon:
A. Escape of dangerous thing from defendant’s land
B. Criminal intention
C. Contractual relationship
D. Constitutional obligation
Answer: A
36. MC Mehta principle of absolute liability removed:
A. Burden of proof
B. Exceptions available under strict liability
C. Requirement of negligence
D. Judicial review
Answer: B
37. Assertion: Negligence requires foreseeable harm.
Reason: Every injury automatically establishes negligence.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: C
38. “Injuria sine damno” primarily protects:
A. Economic interests only
B. Legal rights irrespective of actual damage
C. Moral obligations only
D. Executive powers
Answer: B
39. Article 14 prohibits:
A. Reasonable classification
B. Class legislation and arbitrariness
C. Judicial review
D. Preventive detention
Answer: B
40. True or False: Basic structure doctrine limits amending power of Parliament.
Answer: True
41. Doctrine of eclipse makes inconsistent law:
A. Void ab initio for all purposes
B. Dormant against citizens until inconsistency removed
C. Automatically repealed
D. Criminally unenforceable only
Answer: B
42. “Audi alteram partem” is essential component of:
A. Double jeopardy
B. Natural justice
C. Estoppel
D. Strict liability
Answer: B
43. Assertion: Article 21 has expansive judicial interpretation.
Reason: Supreme Court widened meaning of personal liberty substantially.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
44. Lok Adalat award becomes executable as:
A. Arbitration opinion
B. Civil court decree
C. Police order
D. Administrative instruction
Answer: B
45. “Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea” emphasizes importance of:
A. Guilty mind accompanying guilty act
B. Motive alone
C. Harm alone
D. Police investigation only
Answer: A
46. True or False: Standard of proof beyond reasonable doubt eliminates every imaginary doubt.
Answer: False
47. Criminal jurisprudence prefers stricter burden of proof because:
A. State revenue involved
B. Liberty and reputation of accused at stake
C. Civil damages unavailable
D. FIR conclusive proof
Answer: B
48. Giving intentionally false evidence before court constitutes:
A. Sedition
B. Perjury
C. Criminal conspiracy
D. Misrepresentation only
Answer: B
49. Assertion: Ignorance of law is no excuse.
Reason: Legal system presumes accessibility and knowledge of law.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
50. “Nemo judex in causa sua” aims primarily to preserve:
A. Judicial economy
B. Impartiality in decision-making
C. Executive supremacy
D. Legislative privilege
Answer: B
– Team Lawyer Talks