This ultra-difficult AIBE practice set is designed for serious aspirants seeking high-level conceptual clarity and exam-oriented preparation. Includes PYQ-inspired patterns, analytical legal reasoning, procedural traps, statement-based questions, professional ethics, and advanced Bare Act application.
1. “Nemo judex in causa sua” protects principle of:
A. Strict liability
B. Natural justice against bias
C. Estoppel
D. Judicial review
Answer: B
2. An advocate suppressing material fact before court primarily violates:
A. Doctrine of estoppel
B. Professional ethics
C. Constitutional morality
D. Res judicata
Answer: B
3. True or False: Advocate-client privilege survives even after engagement ends.
Answer: True
4. “Ex turpi causa non oritur actio” means:
A. Equity follows law
B. No action arises from immoral cause
C. Facts speak for themselves
D. Law punishes intention only
Answer: B
5. Assertion: Professional misconduct may arise even outside courtroom conduct.
Reason: Advocate’s professional integrity extends beyond court appearance.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
6. Constructive res judicata bars:
A. Future criminal prosecution
B. Matters which ought to have been raised earlier
C. Execution proceedings
D. Appeals automatically
Answer: B
7. True or False: Jurisdictional defect can be cured through party consent.
Answer: False
8. Review petition is maintainable when:
A. Fresh arguments possible
B. Error apparent on face of record exists
C. Appeal limitation expired
D. Party dissatisfied generally
Answer: B
9. Temporary injunction primarily protects:
A. Criminal liability
B. Status quo pending adjudication
C. Constitutional validity
D. Arbitration clause only
Answer: B
10. Appeal is continuation of:
A. Investigation
B. Suit/proceedings
C. Police inquiry
D. Arbitration
Answer: B
11. Assertion: Inherent powers under CPC are supplementary.
Reason: They cannot override express statutory provisions.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
12. FIR under Section 154 CrPC can be lodged by:
A. Victim only
B. Eye-witness only
C. Any person aware of cognizable offence
D. Magistrate only
Answer: C
13. rue or False: Delay in FIR automatically destroys prosecution case.
Answer: False
14. Anticipatory bail is extraordinary remedy because:
A. Granted after conviction
B. Protects liberty before arrest
C. Applies only to women
D. Bars investigation
Answer: B
15. Police confession is generally inadmissible due to:
A. Executive privilege
B. Possibility of coercion
C. Constitutional amendment
D. Civil liability
Answer: B
16. Assertion: Bail jurisprudence flows from Article 21.
Reason: Personal liberty occupies central constitutional importance.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
17. Dying declaration may sustain conviction when:
A. Recorded only by Magistrate
B. Found truthful and voluntary
C. Corroborated compulsorily
D. Made on oath
Answer: B
18. True or False: Hearsay evidence has no exceptions under Evidence Act.
Answer: False
19. “Res gestae” permits admissibility of:
A. Opinion evidence
B. Facts connected with same transaction
C. Character evidence only
D. Secondary evidence only
Answer: B
20. Expert evidence is:
A. Conclusive proof always
B. Advisory evidence
C. Inadmissible evidence
D. Privileged evidence
Answer: B
21. Accomplice evidence requires corroboration as:
A. Rule of law
B. Rule of prudence
C. Constitutional mandate
D. Procedural formality
Answer: B
22. Theft requires dishonest intention at:
A. Investigation stage
B. Time of moving property
C. Trial stage
D. Sentencing stage
Answer: B
23. True or False: Every murder is culpable homicide.
Answer: True
24. “Mens rea” becomes irrelevant generally in:
A. Murder
B. Theft
C. Strict liability offences
D. Conspiracy
Answer: C
25. Common intention under Section 34 IPC may develop:
A. Only through written agreement
B. During occurrence itself
C. Only after offence
D. Through negligence
Answer: B
26. Section 149 IPC is based upon:
A. Common intention
B. Common object
C. Negligence
D. Strict liability
Answer: B
27. Assertion: Criminal conspiracy itself constitutes substantive offence.
Reason: Agreement is gravamen of conspiracy.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
28. True or False: Mistake of fact may excuse criminal liability.
Answer: True
29. Cheating requires dishonest intention:
A. After contract breach
B. At inception of transaction
C. During investigation only
D. During appeal
Answer: B
30. Consideration under Indian Contract Act may move from:
A. Promisee only
B. Third party also
C. Court only
D. Promisor only
Answer: B
31. Minor’s agreement is void because:
A. Fraud presumed
B. Contractual incapacity exists
C. Public policy violated
D. Consideration absent
Answer: B
32. Assertion: Free consent is essential for valid contract.
Reason: Consent obtained through coercion affects enforceability.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
33. “Consensus ad idem” means:
A. Equal bargaining power
B. Meeting of minds
C. Contractual compensation
D. Legal injury
Answer: B
34. True or False: Silence always amounts to fraud.
Answer: False
35. “Volenti non fit injuria” is based upon:
A. Negligence
B. Consent
C. Fraud
D. Constitutional law
Answer: B
36. Rylands v. Fletcher liability arises from:
A. Criminal negligence
B. Escape of dangerous substance
C. Contractual breach
D. Constitutional tort
Answer: B
37. MC Mehta case removed exceptions under:
A. Absolute liability
B. Strict liability
C. Negligence law
D. Constitutional law
Answer: B
38. Assertion: Negligence requires foreseeability.
Reason: Every accident automatically creates liability.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: C
39. “Injuria sine damno” protects:
A. Economic loss only
B. Legal right despite no actual damage
C. Moral duty only
D. Executive discretion
Answer: B
40. Article 14 prohibits:
A. Judicial review
B. Arbitrariness
C. Preventive detention
D. Constitutional amendment
Answer: B
41. True or False: Judicial review forms part of basic structure doctrine.
Answer: True
42. Doctrine of eclipse applies mainly to:
A. Tax laws only
B. Pre-constitutional laws violating FRs
C. Criminal trials
D. Emergency provisions
Answer: B
43. “Audi alteram partem” means:
A. Hear other side
B. Facts speak themselves
C. Rule against bias
D. Double jeopardy
Answer: A
44. Assertion: Article 21 received expansive interpretation.
Reason: Supreme Court widened concept of personal liberty.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
45. Lok Adalat award is treated as:
A. Interim order
B. Civil court decree
C. Advisory opinion
D. Police order
Answer: B
46. “Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea” stresses:
A. Guilty act only
B. Guilty mind with guilty act
C. Harm alone sufficient
D. Motive alone
Answer: B
47. True or False: Beyond reasonable doubt means beyond all imaginary doubt.
Answer: False
48. Criminal jurisprudence prefers higher burden because:
A. State revenue involved
B. Liberty of accused at stake
C. FIR conclusive proof
D. Police powers absolute
Answer: B
49. Giving false evidence intentionally amounts to:
A. Sedition
B. Perjury
C. Defamation
D. Extortion
Answer: B
50. Assertion: Ignorance of law is no excuse.
Reason: Law presumes everyone knows law.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
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