1. Which one of the following principles was laid down in Rajesh Kant Roy v. Shanti Debi?
A. Doctrine of Part Performance
B. Doctrine of Lis Pendens
C. Doctrine of Vested Interest
D. Doctrine of Contingent Interest
2. Within the meaning of Section 51 of the Transfer of Property Act, the transferee:
A. Is not entitled to the value of improvements.
B. Is entitled to the value of improvements.
C. Has conditional entitlement to the value of improvements.
D. None of the above.
3. Under Section 35 of the Transfer of Property Act, compensation shall be given to the disappointed transferee when:
The transfer is gratuitous and the transferor has died or become incapable of making a fresh transfer before election.
The transfer is gratuitous and the transferor is alive before election.
The transfer is for consideration and the transferor has died before election.
The transfer is for consideration and the transferor is alive before election.
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. Only 2, 3 and 4
C. Only 1, 2 and 3
D. Only 1, 3 and 4
4. Match List I with List II.
List I – List II
A. Doctrine of Subrogation – 1. Section 17
B. Doctrine of Consolidation – 2. Section 52
C. Doctrine of Accumulation – 3. Section 61
D. Doctrine of Lis Pendens – 4. Section 92
A. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
B. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
C. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
D. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
5. The legal term Res Nullius means:
A. Property of a particular person
B. Ownerless property
C. Property of a corporation
D. None of the above
6. Which of the following is not an essential element of a sale?
A. Seller and Buyer
B. Without consideration
C. Transfer of ownership
D. None of the above
7. Match List I with List II.
List I – List II
A. Sale – 1. Section 21
B. Marshalling – 2. Section 122
C. Gift – 3. Section 54
D. Contingent Interest – 4. Section 81
A. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
B. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
C. A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
D. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
8. Section 12 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 does not apply where the transfer is by:
A. Lease
B. Exchange
C. Gift
D. Sale
9. Which of the following are excluded from the application of Section 137 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
Stocks
Shares
Debentures
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. Only 1 and 2
C. Only 2 and 3
D. Only 1 and 3
10. Which section of the Transfer of Property Act deals with Oral Transfer?
A. Section 5
B. Section 7
C. Section 8
D. Section 9
11. Match List I with List II.
List I – List II
A. Holding Over – 1. Mortgage
B. Universal Donee – 2. Gift
C. Redemption – 3. Lease
D. Purchaser – 4. Sale
A. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
B. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
C. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
D. A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
12. Match List I with List II.
List I – List II
A. Part Performance – 1. Section 65
B. Conditional Transfer – 2. Section 53A
C. Appointment of Receiver – 3. Section 69A
D. Implied Contracts by Mortgagor – 4. Section 25
A. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
B. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
C. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
D. A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
13. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
A. What may be transferred — Section 6 TPA
B. Oral Transfer — Section 9 TPA
C. Vested Interest — Section 21 TPA
D. Joint Transfer for Consideration — Section 45 TPA
14. Match List I with List II.
List I – List II
A. Fraudulent Transfer – 1. Section 14
B. Election when Necessary – 2. Section 35
C. Rule against Perpetuity – 3. Section 25
D. Conditional Transfer – 4. Section 53
A. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
B. A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
C. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
D. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
15. Assertion (A): Transfer in perpetuity is allowed for the benefit of the public.
Reason (R): Welfare of the public at large is above the welfare of an individual.
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true, but R is false.
D. R is true, but A is false.
16. Which one of the following sections of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 relates to “Presumption as to Electronic Agreements”?
A. Section 81
B. Section 84
C. Section 85
D. Section 90
17. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, how many witnesses are required to prove any fact?
A. At least one
B. At least two
C. At least five
D. Not specified
18. Match List I with List II.
List I – List II
A. Electronic Records – 1. Section 47
B. Opinion as to Electronic Signature – 2. Section 90
C. Proof of Electronic Signature – 3. Section 22
D. Presumption as to Electronic Messages – 4. Section 66
A. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
B. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
C. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
D. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
19. Match List I with List II.
List I – List II
A. Expert Opinion – 1. Opinion of Examiner of Electronic Evidence
B. Presumption as to Powers of Attorney – 2. Admissions in Civil Cases
C. Opinion of Examiner of Electronic Evidence – 3. Presumption as to Powers of Attorney
D. Admissions in Civil Cases – 4. Expert Opinion
A. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
B. A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
C. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
D. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
20. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
A. Matrimonial Communications – Section 121
B. Official Communications – Section 123
C. Professional Communications – Section 124
D. Confidential Communications with Legal Advisers – Section 125
21. The illustration regarding asking a witness whether he is a dacoit is based on which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
A. Section 171
B. Section 175
C. Section 169
D. Section 167
22. The principle that a confession must either admit the offence or substantially all the facts constituting the offence was laid down in:
A. Queen Empress v. Abdullah
B. H.H.B. Gill v. King Emperor
C. Pakala Narayana Swami v. Emperor
D. John Makin v. Attorney General
23. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
A. Presumption as to Documents Thirty Years Old – Section 92
B. Order of Examination – Section 143
C. Presumption as to Abetment of Suicide by Married Woman – Section 118
D. Official Communications – Section 123
24. If a witness who is unable to speak gives evidence in writing in open court, such evidence shall be deemed to be:
A. Documentary Evidence
B. Primary Evidence
C. Oral Evidence
D. Secondary Evidence
25. Consider the following statements:
A. The presumption of legitimacy of a child is governed by Section 116 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023.
B. Narendra Nath Pahari v. Ram Govind Pahari is a leading case on the legitimacy of a child born during the continuance of a valid marriage.
A. A is true but B is false.
B. A is false but B is true.
C. Both A and B are true.
D. Both A and B are false.
26. Presumption as to an electronic record five years old is:
A. Presumption of Fact
B. Presumption of Law
C. Presumption of Fact and Law
D. Conclusive Proof
27. Match List I with List II.
List I – List II
A. Primary Evidence – 1. Section 74
B. Public Document – 2. Section 75
C. Private Document – 3. Section 57
D. Secondary Evidence – 4. Section 58
A. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
B. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
C. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
D. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
28. Which of the following provisions of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 is not correctly matched?
A. Section 2 – Definitions
B. Section 3 – Evidence may be given of facts in issue and relevant facts
C. Section 14 – Admissions
D. Section 39 – Opinions of Experts
29. Match List I with List II.
List I – List II
A. Hostile Witness – 1. Section 162
B. Dying Declaration – 2. Section 26(1)
C. Refreshing Memory – 3. Section 157
D. Leading Questions – 4. Section 146
A. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
B. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
C. A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
D. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
30. Identification proceedings are relevant under which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
A. Section 7
B. Section 8
C. Section 9
D. Section 10
31. Match List I with List II.
List I – List II
A. Definitions – 1. Section 4
B. Facts otherwise irrelevant become relevant – 2. Section 105
C. Burden of Proof – 3. Section 11
D. Facts forming part of the same transaction – 4. Section 2
A. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
B. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
C. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
D. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
32. Facts showing the existence of any state of mind, such as intention, knowledge, good faith or ill will, are relevant under:
A. Section 8
B. Section 9
C. Section 13
D. Section 14
33. Arrange the following in chronological order:
I. Cross-examination
II. Examination-in-chief
III. Re-examination
A. I, II, III
B. II, I, III
C. III, II, I
D. II, III, I
34. Evidence may be given of:
1.Facts in issue
2.Relevant facts
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
35. Assertion (A): An admission is only prima facie evidence.
Reason (R): An admission is not conclusive proof, though it may operate as an estoppel.
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. R is true but A is false.
36. The cardinal principle “Nullum Crimen Nulla Poena Sine Lege” means:
A. No act can be treated as an offence and no punishment can be imposed unless it is prescribed by law.
B. Every accused is presumed innocent until proved guilty.
C. Ignorance of law is an excuse.
D. Ignorance of fact is no excuse.
37. Match List I with List II.
List I – List II
A. Rioting – 1. Fabricating False Evidence
B. Wrongful Confinement – 2. Extortion
C. Fabricating False Evidence – 3. Rioting
D. Extortion – 4. Wrongful Confinement
A. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
B. A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
C. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
D. A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
38. A commits theft while carrying a loaded pistol to cause hurt if resistance is offered. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, this offence amounts to:
A. Theft after preparation for causing death, hurt or restraint
B. Theft by clerk or servant
C. Simple theft
D. Robbery
39. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
A. Extortion – BNS provision relating to Extortion
B. Dacoity – BNS provision relating to Dacoity
C. Robbery – Section 303 BNS
D. Theft – Section 303 BNS
40. Arrange the following according to their relevant provisions under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita:
I. Acts Endangering Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India
II. House-Trespass
III. Communication Made in Good Faith
IV. Public Nuisance
A. III, I, IV, II
B. III, IV, I, II
C. I, III, II, IV
D. IV, II, I, III
41. The offence that replaced Section 124A IPC (Sedition) under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is:
A. Criminal Conspiracy
B. Acts Endangering Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India
C. Waging War Against India
D. Promoting Enmity Between Groups
42. Assertion (A): A child aged nine years intentionally kills B. A may still be held guilty if sufficient maturity is proved.
Reason (R): Every child below twelve years is absolutely exempt from criminal liability.
A. Both A and R are true, and R explains A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
43. A person executing a court’s lawful sentence under the authority of a judicial order is protected by:
A. Act done by a Judge
B. Act done pursuant to the judgment or order of a Court
C. Mistake of Fact
D. Accident
44. Match List I with List II.
List I – List II
A. Causing Death by Negligence – 1. Attempt to Commit Suicide
B. Dowry Death – 2. Abetment of Suicide
C. Abetment of Suicide – 3. Causing Death by Negligence
D. Attempt to Commit Suicide – 4. Dowry Death
A. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
B. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
C. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
D. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
45. Which of the following cases is associated with the defence of necessity?
A. DPP v. Beard
B. R v. Dudley and Stephens
C. R v. Lipman
D. McNaghten’s Case
46. Arrange the following in ascending order according to the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita:
I. Public Servant
II. Dishonestly
III. Fraudulently
IV. Document
A. I, II, III, IV
B. II, III, I, IV
C. IV, II, III, I
D. III, II, I, IV
47. While executing a sentence of solitary confinement, such confinement shall not exceed:
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 21 days
D. One month
48. Assertion (A): The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita contains general exceptions from criminal liability.
Reason (R): Criminal liability cannot be absolute in every circumstance.
A. Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
49. Which of the following is correctly matched under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
A. Section 152 – Acts Endangering Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India
B. Section 303 – Robbery
C. Section 78 – Outraging Modesty of a Woman
D. Section 336 – Criminal Intimidation
50. Match List I with List II.
List I – List II
A. Forgery – 1. Criminal Trespass
B. House-Breaking – 2. Forgery
C. Criminal Trespass – 3. Criminal Intimidation
D. Criminal Intimidation – 4. House-Breaking
A. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
B. A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
C. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
D. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
Answer Key :
1-C 2-B 3-D 4-A 5-B 6-B 7-D 8-A 9-A 10-D
11-A 12-D 13-C 14-B 15-A 16-B 17-D 18-A 19-A 20-D 21-A 22-C 23-C 24-C 25-C 26-B 27-D 28-C 29-A 30-C 31-A 32-D 33-B 34-C 35-A 36-A 37-A 38-A 39-C 40-A 41-B 42-C 43-B 44-A 45-B 46-A 47-B 48-A 49-A 50-A
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