1. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
(A) Every immoral act is an offence under the BNS.
(B) Every civil wrong amounts to a criminal offence.
(C) An act becomes an offence only when it is made punishable by law.
(D) Every wrongful act is punishable under the BNS.
2. Which of the following is not a feature of the Rule of Law?
(A) Equality before law
(B) Arbitrary exercise of power
(C) Supremacy of law
(D) Predominance of legal spirit
3. True / False
Confession made to a police officer is generally inadmissible in evidence, except in cases expressly provided by law.
(A) True
(B) False
4. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, cognizance of an offence is taken by:
(A) Police Officer
(B) Magistrate
(C) Public Prosecutor
(D) Investigating Officer
5. Consider the following statements regarding Article 14 of the Constitution of India:
1.Article 14 permits reasonable classification.
2.Class legislation is prohibited.
3.Every classification violates Article 14.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) Only Statement 1 is correct.
(B) Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
(C) Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
(D) All the statements are correct.
6. A proposal becomes a promise when it is:
(A) Registered
(B) Signed
(C) Accepted
(D) Published
7. True / False
Mens rea is an essential ingredient of every offence under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
(A) True
(B) False
8. Which of the following statements regarding oral evidence is correct?
(A) Oral evidence always prevails over documentary evidence.
(B) Oral evidence must, in general, be direct.
(C) Documentary evidence is irrelevant where oral evidence exists.
(D) Hearsay evidence is always admissible.
9. Protection against double jeopardy is guaranteed under:
(A) Article 19
(B) Article 20(2)
(C) Article 21
(D) Article 22
10. The legal maxim “Audi Alteram Partem” means:
(A) No one shall be a judge in his own cause.
(B) Hear the other side.
(C) Ignorance of law is no excuse.
(D) The thing speaks for itself.
11. A person causes hurt while exercising the right of private defence within lawful limits. He is:
(A) Always guilty.
(B) Guilty only if grievous hurt is caused.
(C) Not criminally liable.
(D) Liable only for compensation.
12. True / False
The Preamble to the Constitution of India is enforceable by courts.
(A) True
(B) False
13. Which of the following conditions are necessary for the application of the doctrine of res judicata?
1.Matter directly and substantially in issue.
2.Former suit decided by a competent court.
3.Matter finally decided.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
14. A valid gift under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 must be:
(A) Oral only.
(B) Registered and accepted by the donee.
(C) Registered only.
(D) Accepted only.
15. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the burden of proving a fact especially within the knowledge of a person lies upon:
(A) The prosecution.
(B) The Court.
(C) That person.
(D) The complainant.
16. True / False
Bail is a matter of right in every criminal case.
(A) True
(B) False
17. Which writ is primarily issued to secure the release of a person from illegal detention?
(A) Mandamus
(B) Certiorari
(C) Habeas Corpus
(D) Prohibition
18. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Motive and intention are always identical.
(B) Motive is generally different from intention.
(C) Motive alone is sufficient to constitute an offence.
(D) Intention is irrelevant in criminal law.
19. An agreement enforceable by law is called:
(A) Proposal
(B) Promise
(C) Contract
(D) Consideration
20. Match the following:
List IList IIA. Mandamus1. Produce the bodyB. Habeas Corpus2. Command a public authorityC. Prohibition3. Prevent excess of jurisdictionD. Certiorari4. Quash the order of an inferior court
(A) A–2, B–1, C–3, D–4
(B) A–1, B–2, C–4, D–3
(C) A–3, B–4, C–2, D–1
(D) A–4, B–3, C–1, D–2
21. Specific performance under the Specific Relief Act, 1963 is:
(A) A criminal remedy.
(B) A civil remedy.
(C) Available in every case.
(D) A constitutional remedy.
22. True / False
Admissions are relevant and may generally be proved against the person making them.
(A) True
(B) False
23. Equality before law is guaranteed under:
(A) Article 13
(B) Article 14
(C) Article 15
(D) Article 16
24. A person who purchases goods for resale is generally:
(A) A consumer.
(B) Not a consumer.
(C) A beneficiary consumer.
(D) A deemed consumer.
25. Which legal maxim applies where a person voluntarily accepts the risk of harm?
(A) Res Ipsa Loquitur
(B) Volenti Non Fit Injuria
(C) Actus Non Facit Reum Nisi Mens Sit Rea
(D) Qui Facit Per Alium Facit Per Se
26. Which of the following statements regarding the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 is correct?
(A) Hearsay evidence is always admissible.
(B) Facts in issue alone are relevant.
(C) Relevant facts include facts connected with the facts in issue as provided by law.
(D) Only documentary evidence is admissible in criminal trials.
27. Under the Constitution of India, the writ of Quo Warranto is issued to:
(A) Compel performance of a public duty.
(B) Challenge illegal detention.
(C) Challenge the authority of a person holding a public office.
(D) Quash the order of a subordinate court.
28. True / False
Every confession is an admission, but every admission is not a confession.
(A) True
(B) False
29. Which of the following is an essential ingredient of a valid contract?
(A) Social relationship
(B) Free consent
(C) Religious ceremony
(D) Registration in every case
30. Consider the following statements:
1.Article 32 is itself a Fundamental Right.
2.Article 226 empowers only the Supreme Court to issue writs.
3.The High Court may issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights as well as for any other purpose.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 3
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
31. Which of the following statements regarding the General Exceptions under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is correct?
(A) Every accused is presumed to have established a General Exception.
(B) The prosecution must prove the existence of a General Exception beyond reasonable doubt.
(C) The accused may claim the benefit of a General Exception by proving circumstances that bring the case within it.
(D) General Exceptions apply only to bailable offences.
32. True / False
Every bailable offence is cognizable.
(A) True
(B) False
33. Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, a mortgage is:
(A) Transfer of ownership.
(B) Transfer of possession only.
(C) Transfer of an interest in specific immovable property for securing a debt.
(D) Lease of immovable property.
34. Which of the following statements regarding judicial review is correct?
(A) It is expressly mentioned as a Fundamental Right.
(B) It forms part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution.
(C) It can be abolished by an ordinary law.
(D) It is exercised only by the Supreme Court.
35. The legal maxim “Actus Non Facit Reum Nisi Mens Sit Rea” means:
(A) The act itself speaks.
(B) The act does not make a person guilty unless the mind is guilty.
(C) No one should be condemned unheard.
(D) Let the buyer beware.
36. True / False
A dying declaration is relevant even though the maker was not under expectation of death at the time of making it.
(A) True
(B) False
37. Under the Specific Relief Act, 1963, an injunction is primarily intended to:
(A) Award punishment.
(B) Prevent or restrain the commission of a wrongful act.
(C) Transfer ownership.
(D) Award maintenance.
38. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A?
(A) To develop scientific temper.
(B) To protect and improve the natural environment.
(C) To vote in every election.
(D) To uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India.
39. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, investigation is ordinarily conducted by:
(A) The Magistrate.
(B) The Public Prosecutor.
(C) The Police.
(D) The Sessions Court.
40. Consider the following statements regarding admissions:
1.Admissions are relevant.
2.Admissions are generally substantive evidence against the maker.
3.Admissions are conclusive proof of the matters admitted.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
41. Which of the following is not an essential element of negligence?
(A) Duty of care.
(B) Breach of duty.
(C) Damage.
(D) Motive.
42. True / False
The doctrine of prospective overruling was first applied in India in constitutional matters.
(A) True
(B) False
43. Which of the following Fundamental Rights is available only to citizens?
(A) Equality before law.
(B) Protection of life and personal liberty.
(C) Freedom of speech and expression.
(D) Protection in respect of conviction for offences.
44. Under the Limitation Act, 1963, limitation bars:
(A) The right itself in every case.
(B) The remedy, and not generally the right.
(C) Both right and remedy in every case.
(D) Neither right nor remedy.
45. Which of the following statements regarding General Exceptions under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is correct?
(A) Every accused automatically gets their benefit.
(B) The accused has the burden of proving circumstances bringing the case within a General Exception.
(C) General Exceptions apply only in civil cases.
(D) General Exceptions are matters of procedure.
46. True / False
A consumer who purchases goods exclusively for commercial resale is generally not a consumer under the Consumer Protection Act.
(A) True
(B) False
47. Which of the following doctrines is associated with Article 14?
(A) Eclipse.
(B) Severability.
(C) Reasonable Classification.
(D) Pith and Substance.
48. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(A) Habeas Corpus — Command to perform public duty.
(B) Mandamus — Produce the body.
(C) Certiorari — Quash the order of an inferior court.
(D) Prohibition — Recovery of possession.
49. True / False
Every offence under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 requires proof of motive.
(A) True
(B) False
50. Which one of the following best describes the Basic Structure Doctrine?
(A) Parliament cannot amend any provision of the Constitution.
(B) Parliament may amend the Constitution but cannot alter its Basic Structure.
(C) Only Fundamental Rights are unamendable.
(D) Constitutional amendments are beyond judicial review.
ANSWER KEY
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (C) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (A) 21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (C) 28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (B) 31. (C) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (B) 36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (C) 40. (B) 41. (D) 42. (A) 43. (C) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (A) 47. (C) 48. (C) 49. (B) 50. (B)
– Team Lawyer Talks
