Part I: Constitutional Law (10 Questions)

​1. The “Basic Structure” doctrine was propounded by the Supreme Court in:

A) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab

B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

C) Minerva Mills v. Union of India

D) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

​2. Which Article of the Constitution abolishes “Untouchability”?

A) Article 16

B) Article 17

C) Article 18

D) Article 23

​3. The President of India can be impeached on the ground of:

A) Proved Misbehavior

B) Incapacity

C) Violation of the Constitution

D) Corruption

​4. The Writ of “Habeas Corpus” literally means:

A) We Command

B) To have the body of

C) By what authority

D) To certify

​5. Right to Privacy is declared as a Fundamental Right under:

A) Article 19

B) Article 21

C) Article 14

D) Article 20

​6. Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with the Anti-Defection Law?

A) 9th Schedule

B) 10th Schedule

C) 11th Schedule

D) 12th Schedule

​7. The power to amend the Constitution is provided under:

A) Article 368

B) Article 370

C) Article 356

D) Article 360

​8. Uniform Civil Code is a Directive Principle under which Article?

A) Article 40

B) Article 44

C) Article 45

D) Article 50

​9. Who appoints the Judges of the High Court?

A) The Governor

B) The Chief Justice of High Court

C) The President

D) The Chief Minister

​10. Financial Emergency can be declared under:

A) Article 352

B) Article 356

C) Article 360

D) Article 365

​Part II: Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) / IPC (8 Questions)

​(Note: Questions focus on the New Act BNS, 2023)

​11. Under BNS 2023, “Mob Lynching” is punishable under which section?

A) Section 103(2)

B) Section 101

C) Section 111

D) Section 302

​12. The offense of “Sedition” (Rajdroha) has been replaced in BNS by “Acts endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of India” under:

A) Section 124A

B) Section 152

C) Section 150

D) Section 113

​13. “Snatching” is now a distinct offense defined under Section ___ of BNS.

A) 304

B) 302

C) 379

D) 410

​14. Under BNS, the maximum punishment for “Hit and Run” cases (Section 106(2)) is:

A) 5 Years

B) 7 Years

C) 10 Years

D) Life Imprisonment

​15. Community Service is introduced as a punishment for the first time in BNS for:

A) Murder

B) Petty offenses like defamation or public misconduct (value < ₹5000)

C) Robbery

D) Rape

​16. Which section of BNS defines “Organized Crime”?

A) Section 111

B) Section 109

C) Section 112

D) Section 303

​17. The definition of “Document” in BNS explicitly includes:

A) Electronic and digital records

B) Oral statements

C) Gestures

D) Physical maps only

​18. Sexual intercourse by a man with his own wife (not being under 18 years) is:

A) Rape under Section 63

B) Excepted from Rape (Marital Rape Exception maintained)

C) Punishable with 3 years

D) Adultery

​Part III: Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) / CrPC (10 Questions)

​19. Under BNSS, the concept of “FIR” is covered under Section:

A) 154

B) 173

C) 176

D) 190

​20. BNSS allows for the registration of an FIR irrespective of the jurisdiction of the police station. This is known as:

A) Open FIR

B) Zero FIR

C) Null FIR

D) Transfer FIR

​21. Under BNSS, the police custody can be sought in parts within the initial period of:

A) 15 days only

B) 40 or 60 days

C) 30 days

D) 90 days

​22. Which section of BNSS mandates videography of search and seizure operations?

A) Section 100

B) Section 105

C) Section 185

D) Section 93

​23. Summary trial is mandatory for offenses punishable up to:

A) 2 years

B) 3 years

C) 1 year

D) 5 years

​24. Under Section 479 of BNSS (Bail for undertrials), a first-time offender can be released on bond if they have served:

A) One-half of the maximum sentence

B) One-third of the maximum sentence

C) One-fourth of the maximum sentence

D) The full sentence

​25. Forensics investigation is mandatory for offenses punishable with imprisonment of:

A) 3 years or more

B) 5 years or more

C) 7 years or more

D) 10 years or more

​26. The term “Proclaimed Offender” in BNSS (Section 82 equivalent) now applies to offenses punishable with imprisonment of:

A) 7 years or more

B) 10 years or more, or life/death

C) 3 years

D) Any offense

​27. Anticipatory Bail provisions are found in BNSS under:

A) Section 438

B) Section 482

C) Section 484

D) Section 490

​28. Judgment in a criminal trial under BNSS must be delivered within ___ days of the conclusion of arguments.

A) 30

B) 45

C) 60

D) 90

​Part IV: Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) (10 Questions)

​29. The principle of Res Judicata is contained in:

A) Section 10

B) Section 11

C) Section 12

D) Section 13

​30. “Garnishee Order” relates to:

A) Attachment of debt

B) Attachment of property

C) Arrest of judgment debtor

D) Appointment of Receiver

​31. A caveat remains in force for:

A) 30 days

B) 60 days

C) 90 days

D) 120 days

​32. Under Order 39, the court grants:

A) Permanent Injunction

B) Temporary Injunction

C) Mandatory Injunction

D) None of the above

​33. Which section deals with “Mesne Profits”?

A) Section 2(12)

B) Section 2(14)

C) Section 2(9)

D) Section 2(5)

​34. An ex-parte decree can be set aside under:

A) Order 9 Rule 5

B) Order 9 Rule 13

C) Order 10 Rule 1

D) Order 11 Rule 2

​35. Section 89 of CPC was introduced to promote:

A) Arrest of women

B) Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR)

C) Public Interest Litigation

D) Speedy trials for seniors

​36. A suit regarding immovable property may be instituted where:

A) The plaintiff resides

B) The defendant resides

C) The property is situated

D) The cause of action arises wholly

​37. Second Appeal under Section 100 lies only on:

A) Question of Fact

B) Mixed Question of Fact and Law

C) Substantial Question of Law

D) Error in calculation

​38. “Pleading” is defined as:

A) Plaint only

B) Written Statement only

C) Plaint or Written Statement

D) Replication

​Part V: Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) / Evidence Act (8 Questions)

​39. Under BSA 2023, “Electronic Evidence” is treated as:

A) Secondary Evidence

B) Primary Evidence (if standard conditions met)

C) Hearsay Evidence

D) Not admissible

​40. The definition of “Document” in BSA includes:

A) Only paper documents

B) Electronic and digital records explicitly

C) Oral testimony

D) Mental impressions

​41. Burden of Proof lies on:

A) The accused always

B) The person who asserts a fact

C) The police

D) The Judge

​42. A confession made to a Police Officer is:

A) Admissible

B) Inadmissible

C) Admissible if made in presence of Magistrate

D) Admissible for discovery of facts

​43. “Res Gestae” (facts forming part of same transaction) is relevant under Section ___ of the old Act (Section 4 of BSA equivalent).

A) 6

B) 7

C) 8

D) 9

​44. Estoppel is a rule of:

A) Criminal Law

B) Civil Evidence

C) Tort

D) Contract

​45. Leading questions can be asked freely during:

A) Examination-in-chief

B) Cross-examination

C) Re-examination

D) By the Judge only

​46. The presumption as to dowry death is given under:

A) Section 113A

B) Section 113B (Old Act) / Equivalent in BSA

C) Section 114

D) Section 115

​Part VI: Alternative Dispute Redressal (4 Questions)

​47. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 is based on:

A) UNCITRAL Model Law

B) US Arbitration Law

C) British Arbitration Act

D) Indian Contract Act

​48. An arbitration award is treated as a decree of:

A) High Court

B) Civil Court

C) Supreme Court

D) Consumer Forum

​49. Section 89 CPC mandates courts to refer disputes to:

A) Police

B) ADR mechanisms (Arbitration, Mediation, etc.)

C) High Court

D) District Magistrate

​50. Lok Adalats are organized under:

A) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987

B) Arbitration Act, 1996

C) CPC, 1908

D) Constitution of India

​Part VII: Family Law (8 Questions)

​51. Under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, “Sapinda” relationship extends to ___ generations in the line of ascent through the father.

A) 3

B) 5

C) 7

D) 2

​52. A Muslim marriage is a:

A) Sacrament

B) Civil Contract

C) Divine Bond

D) Social Custom

​53. Divorce by Mutual Consent under Hindu Law is provided in:

A) Section 13

B) Section 13B

C) Section 9

D) Section 10

​54. Who is the natural guardian of a Hindu minor boy?

A) Mother

B) Father

C) Grandfather

D) Court

​55. Triple Talaq (Talaq-e-Biddat) was declared unconstitutional in:

A) Shah Bano Case

B) Shayara Bano Case

C) Sarla Mudgal Case

D) Daniel Latifi Case

​56. Under Christian Law, divorce is governed by:

A) Hindu Marriage Act

B) Indian Divorce Act, 1869

C) Special Marriage Act

D) Christian Marriage Act

​57. Adultery is a ground for divorce:

A) Only for wife

B) Only for husband

C) For both husband and wife

D) Not a ground for divorce

​58. Section 125 CrPC (Maintenance) is applicable to:

A) Hindus only

B) Muslims only

C) All religions (Secular provision)

D) Christians only

​Part VIII: Public Interest Litigation (4 Questions)

​59. The father of PIL in India is considered to be:

A) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer

B) Justice P.N. Bhagwati

C) Justice Chandrachud

D) Justice Khehar

​60. In which case was the “Polluter Pays” principle applied?

A) MC Mehta v. Union of India

B) Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar

C) Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan

D) DK Basu v. State of WB

​61. PIL can be filed under Article 32 in:

A) High Court

B) District Court

C) Supreme Court

D) Tribunal

​62. The first reported case of PIL in India was:

A) Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar

B) SP Gupta v. Union of India

C) Bandhua Mukti Morcha

D) Olga Tellis

​Part IX: Administrative Law (3 Questions)

​63. Which of the following is NOT a principle of Natural Justice?

A) Nemo judex in causa sua

B) Audi alteram partem

C) Res Judicata

D) Reasoned Decision

​64. Delegated Legislation is subject to:

A) Judicial Review

B) Parliamentary Control

C) Both A and B

D) Neither

​65. The Writ of Mandamus cannot be issued against:

A) Public Official

B) Government

C) Private Individual

D) Lower Court

​Part X: Professional Ethics (4 Questions)

​66. Which Section of the Advocates Act, 1961 empowers BCI to punish for professional misconduct?

A) Section 35

B) Section 30

C) Section 24

D) Section 49

​67. An advocate shall not solicit work or advertise. This is mentioned in:

A) Rule 36 of BCI Rules

B) Rule 40 of BCI Rules

C) Rule 11 of BCI Rules

D) Section 10 of Advocates Act

​68. In which case did SC hold that “Lawyers have no right to go on strike”?

A) Ex-Capt. Harish Uppal v. Union of India

B) Vinay Chandra Mishra case

C) Supreme Court Bar Association v. UOI

D) P.D. Gupta v. Ram Murti

​69. “Professional Misconduct” includes:

A) Misappropriation of client’s money

B) Misleading the court

C) Breaching client confidentiality

D) All of the above

​Part XI: Company Law (2 Questions)

​70. The concept of “Separate Legal Entity” was established in:

A) Salomon v. Salomon & Co Ltd

B) Foss v. Harbottle

C) Royal British Bank v. Turquand

D) Donoghue v. Stevenson

​71. Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) is mandatory for companies under:

A) Section 135 of Companies Act, 2013

B) Section 120 of Companies Act, 2013

C) Section 200 of Companies Act, 1956

D) Section 100 of Companies Act, 2013

​Part XII: Environmental Law (2 Questions)

​72. The Environment (Protection) Act was enacted in:

A) 1972

B) 1981

C) 1986

D) 1991

​73. The “Precautionary Principle” implies:

A) Wait for damage to happen then pay

B) Measures to prevent environmental degradation must be taken even if scientific certainty is lacking

C) Industry is always right

D) Government pays for pollution

​Part XIII: Cyber Law (2 Questions)

​74. Information Technology Act was amended substantially in:

A) 2000

B) 2005

C) 2008

D) 2010

​75. Punishment for “Cyber Terrorism” is provided under Section ___ of IT Act.

A) 66A

B) 66F

C) 67

D) 43

​Part XIV: Labour & Industrial Laws (4 Questions)

​76. The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 defines “Strike” under Section:

A) 2(q)

B) 2(s)

C) 2(j)

D) 2(k)

​77. Trade Unions Act was enacted in:

A) 1923

B) 1926

C) 1948

D) 1950

​78. Minimum number of members required to register a Trade Union is:

A) 5

B) 7

C) 10

D) 15

​79. Under the Factories Act, 1948, a “Child” is a person who has not completed:

A) 14 years

B) 15 years

C) 18 years

D) 21 years

​Part XV: Law of Tort, MV Act, Consumer Law (5 Questions)

​80. The principle “Damnum Sine Injuria” means:

A) Damage without legal injury

B) Legal injury without damage

C) Damage and injury both

D) No damage no injury

​81. “Vicarious Liability” means:

A) Liability for one’s own act

B) Liability for the act of another

C) Strict Liability

D) Absolute Liability

​82. Under Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 (as amended), “Hit and Run” compensation for death is:

A) ₹25,000

B) ₹50,000

C) ₹2,00,000

D) ₹5,00,000

​83. The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 replaced the Act of:

A) 1986

B) 1990

C) 2000

D) 2005

​84. Pecuniary jurisdiction of District Consumer Commission under 2019 Act is up to:

A) ₹20 Lakhs

B) ₹50 Lakhs

C) ₹1 Crore

D) ₹10 Crores

​Part XVI: Law of Taxation (4 Questions)

​85. GST (Goods and Services Tax) was introduced by which Amendment?

A) 100th Amendment

B) 101st Amendment

C) 102nd Amendment

D) 103rd Amendment

​86. “Income” is defined under Section ___ of Income Tax Act.

A) 2(24)

B) 2(10)

C) 10(1)

D) 80C

​87. The charging section of the Income Tax Act is:

A) Section 3

B) Section 4

C) Section 5

D) Section 10

​88. Tax Evasion is:

A) Legal

B) Illegal

C) Moral

D) Encouraged

​Part XVII: Contract, SRA, Property, NI Act (8 Questions)

​89. An agreement enforceable by law is a:

A) Promise

B) Contract

C) Offer

D) Acceptance

​90. A contract with a minor is:

A) Voidable

B) Void ab initio

C) Valid

D) Illegal

​91. “Consensus ad idem” means:

A) Meeting of minds

B) Consideration

C) Coercion

D) Mistake

​92. Specific Relief Act, 1963 was significantly amended in:

A) 2015

B) 2018

C) 2020

D) 2010

​93. Under Transfer of Property Act, “Lis Pendens” is defined in:

A) Section 52

B) Section 53

C) Section 54

D) Section 55

​94. A “Cheque” is defined under NI Act in:

A) Section 4

B) Section 5

C) Section 6

D) Section 138

​95. Dishonour of cheque is punishable under Section 138 of NI Act with imprisonment up to:

A) 1 year

B) 2 years

C) 3 years

D) 6 months

​96. Sale of immovable property of value ₹100 or more must be effected by:

A) Delivery of possession

B) Registered Instrument

C) Oral Agreement

D) Affidavit

​Part XVIII: Land Acquisition Act (2 Questions)

​97. The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition Act was passed in:

A) 1894

B) 2013

C) 2015

D) 2019

​98. Under the 2013 Act, Social Impact Assessment (SIA) is:

A) Optional

B) Mandatory

C) Discretionary

D) Not required for private projects

​Part XIX: Intellectual Property Laws (2 Questions)

​99. The term of a Patent in India is:

A) 10 years

B) 15 years

C) 20 years

D) 60 years

​100. Copyright subsists in:

A) Ideas

B) Original literary, dramatic, musical and artistic works

C) Inventions

D) Industrial Designs

Answer Key

​1.B 2.B 3.C 4.B 5.B 6.B 7.A 8.B 9.C 10.C

11.A 12.B 13.A 14.C 15.B 16.A 17.A 18.B 19.B 20.B

21.B 22.B 23.B 24.B 25.C 26.B 27.B 28.B 29.B 30.A

31.C 32.B 33.A 34.B 35.B 36.C 37.C 38.C 39.B 40.B

41.B 42.B 43.A 44.B 45.B 46.B 47.A 48.B 49.B 50.A

51.B 52.B 53.B 54.B 55.B 56.B 57.C 58.C 59.B 60.A

61.C 62.A 63.C 64.C 65.C 66.A 67.A 68.A 69.D 70.A

71.A 72.C 73.B 74.C 75.B 76.A 77.B 78.B 79.B 80.A

81.B 82.C 83.A 84.C 85.B 86.A 87.B 88.B 89.B 90.B

91.A 92.B 93.A 94.C 95.B 96.B 97.B 98.B 99.C 100.B