A fresh, properly structured AIBE exam-style practice set with high-difficulty MCQs, assertion–reason questions, case-based legal reasoning, and Bare Act application questions from IPC, CrPC, Evidence Act, CPC, Contract Act, Constitution, Tort Law, and Professional Ethics.
1. Which Article of the Constitution guarantees freedom of speech?
A. Article 19(1)(a)
B. Article 21
C. Article 14
D. Article 32
2. True/False: Reasonable restrictions can be imposed on Article 19 rights.
A. True
B. False
3. Assertion (A): Article 21 is the heart of Fundamental Rights.
Reason (R): It protects life and personal liberty.
A. Both true & R explains A
B. Both true but unrelated
C. A false
D. Both false
4. Writ of Habeas Corpus is used for:
A. Enforcement of contracts
B. Production of detained person
C. Removal of judge
D. Tax recovery
5. Theft under IPC requires:
A. Dishonest intention
B. Consent
C. Public duty
D. Legal authority
6. Criminal conspiracy is defined under:
A. Section 120A IPC
B. Section 34 IPC
C. Section 378 IPC
D. Section 44 IPC
7. True/False: Every preparation for offence is punishable.
A. True
B. False
8. Abetment includes:
A. Instigation
B. Conspiracy
C. Aiding
D. All of these
9. FIR is recorded under:
A. Section 154 CrPC
B. Section 161 CrPC
C. Section 173 CrPC
D. Section 190 CrPC
10. Cognizance of offence is taken by:
A. Police
B. Magistrate
C. Advocate
D. Witness
11. Bail is generally:
A. Right
B. Exception in serious offences
C. Punishment
D. Appeal
12. Confession to police is:
A. Admissible
B. Not admissible
C. Mandatory
D. Binding
13. Primary evidence means:
A. Original document
B. Copy
C. Oral statement
D. Opinion
14. Dying declaration is admissible under:
A. Section 32 Evidence Act
B. Section 45
C. Section 65
D. Section 17
15. Admission is:
A. Conclusive proof always
B. Relevant evidence
C. Irrelevant
D. Illegal
16. Burden of proof in criminal cases lies on:
A. Accused
B. Prosecution
C. Judge
D. Police only
17. Consideration may move from:
A. Third person
B. Only promisor
C. Only promisee
D. Court only
18. Agreement without consideration is:
A. Valid
B. Void
C. Binding
D. Enforceable
19. Free consent excludes:
A. Coercion
B. Offer
C. Acceptance
D. Promise
20. Bailment involves:
A. Goods
B. Land
C. Shares
D. Rights
21. Res judicata prevents:
A. Re-litigation
B. Appeal
C. FIR
D. Judgment
22. Injunction is:
A. Preventive relief
B. Punishment
C. Criminal trial
D. Appeal
23. True/False: Every decree is appealable.
A. True
B. False
24. Negligence requires:
A. Duty + breach + damage
B. Intention
C. Contract
D. Fraud
25. Defamation protects:
A. Reputation
B. Property
C. Liberty
D. Religion
26. Strict liability case is:
A. Rylands v Fletcher
B. Carlill case
C. Salomon case
D. Kesavananda case
27. Contributory negligence:
A. Increases damages
B. Reduces damages
C. No effect
D. Crime
28. False imprisonment requires:
A. Total restraint
B. Partial restraint
C. Contract
D. Injury
29. Company is:
A. Separate legal entity
B. Natural person
C. Minor
D. State
30. Shareholders are:
A. Owners of company assets
B. Owners of shares only
C. Judges
D. Directors only
31. Cheque is:
A. Bill of exchange
B. Contract
C. Gift
D. Bond
32. Negotiation means:
A. Transfer of instrument
B. Court order
C. Trial
D. Appeal
33. Advocate must maintain:
A. Ethics
B. Bias
C. Delay
D. Misconduct
34. Conflict of interest arises when:
A. Opposing parties represented
B. Filing suit
C. Reading law
D. Drafting
35. Legal profession is:
A. Noble
B. Business only
C. Crime
D. Job only
36. Audi Alteram Partem means:
A. Hear other side
B. No appeal
C. Strict rule
D. Delay justice
37. Ubi Jus Ibi Remedium means:
A. Right implies remedy
B. No law
C. No justice
D. No court
38. Judicial review is part of:
A. Basic structure
B. Directive policy
C. Ordinance
D. Schedule 7
39. Basic structure case:
A. Kesavananda Bharati
B. Golaknath
C. A.K. Gopalan
D. Maneka Gandhi
40. PIL is for:
A. Public interest
B. Private interest
C. Contract
D. Crime
41. Arbitration is based on:
A. Agreement
B. Police
C. Court only
D. FIR
42. ADR reduces:
A. Litigation burden
B. Rights
C. Law
D. Courts
43. Nemo dat means:
A. No better title than seller
B. Equal law
C. Justice rule
D. Appeal rule
44. Res ipsa loquitur means:
A. Thing speaks for itself
B. Law silent
C. Appeal
D. Crime
45. Free legal aid under:
A. Article 39A
B. Article 21
C. Article 19
D. Article 14
46. Lok Adalat award is:
A. Binding
B. Optional
C. Appealable always
D. Invalid
47. AIBE focuses on:
A. Practical law
B. Maths
C. Science
D. GK only
48. Bare Act study helps in:
A. Accuracy
B. Guessing
C. Random answers
D. Confusion
49. PYQs help in:
A. Pattern recognition
B. Random study
C. Avoid revision
D. Skip law
50. Best strategy:
A. Bare Acts + PYQs + Revision
B. Guesswork
C. Notes only
D. Coaching only
📌 ANSWER KEY
1-A, 2-A, 3-A, 4-B, 5-A, 6-A, 7-B, 8-D, 9-A, 10-B
11-B, 12-B, 13-A, 14-A, 15-B, 16-B, 17-A, 18-B, 19-A, 20-A
21-A, 22-A, 23-B, 24-A, 25-A, 26-A, 27-B, 28-A, 29-A, 30-B
31-A, 32-A, 33-A, 34-A, 35-A, 36-A, 37-A, 38-A, 39-A, 40-A
41-A, 42-A, 43-A, 44-A, 45-A, 46-A, 47-A, 48-A, 49-A, 50-A
– Team Lawyer Talks