A fresh AIBE practice set featuring exam-oriented MCQs from Constitutional Law, Criminal Law, Evidence, Contract, CPC, Tort, Professional Ethics, ADR, and Legal Maxims. Designed to strengthen Bare Act interpretation and last-minute revision.
1. Which Article guarantees freedom of speech and expression?
A. 14
B. 19(1)(a)
C. 21
D. 32
✅ B
2. True/False: Article 21 applies only to citizens.
A. True
B. False
✅ B
3. Assertion (A): Equality before law is a feature of Rule of Law.
Reason (R): No person is above law.
A. Both true & R explains A
B. Both true but unrelated
C. A false
D. Both false
✅ A
4. Which writ is issued to release an unlawfully detained person?
A. Mandamus
B. Certiorari
C. Habeas Corpus
D. Quo Warranto
✅ C
5. Defamation is an offence against:
A. Property
B. Reputation
C. Government
D. Person only
✅ B
6. Theft requires dishonest intention to take:
A. Immovable property
B. Movable property
C. Government property only
D. Documents only
✅ B
7. True/False: Preparation is generally punishable for all offences.
A. True
B. False
✅ B
8. Common intention is associated with:
A. Sec 34 IPC
B. Sec 149 IPC
C. Sec 120A IPC
D. Sec 378 IPC
✅ A
9. Which offence involves taking property by putting a person in fear of injury?
A. Theft
B. Extortion
C. Mischief
D. Cheating
✅ B
10. FIR is primarily related to:
A. Civil proceedings
B. Cognizable offences
C. Appeals
D. Arbitration
✅ B
11. Bail in bailable offences is generally:
A. Matter of right
B. Discretionary only
C. Prohibited
D. High Court only
✅ A
12. True/False: An accused is presumed innocent until proven guilty.
A. True
B. False
✅ A
13. Oral evidence must generally be:
A. Direct
B. Hearsay
C. Secondary
D. Documentary
✅ A
14. Which section of the Evidence Act deals with expert opinion?
A. 17
B. 24
C. 45
D. 65
✅ C
15. Dying declaration is relevant because:
A. It is expert evidence
B. Exception to hearsay
C. It is documentary evidence
D. It is admission
✅ B
16. Burden of proof generally lies on:
A. Judge
B. Person asserting a fact
C. Witness
D. Police
✅ B
17. Consideration must be:
A. Adequate
B. Lawful
C. Written
D. Registered
✅ B
18. A contract without consideration is generally:
A. Valid
B. Void
C. Voidable
D. Illegal
✅ B
19. Assertion (A): Coercion affects free consent.
Reason (R): Consent obtained through coercion is not voluntary.
A. Both true & R explains A
B. Both true but unrelated
C. A false
D. Both false
✅ A
20. A minor’s agreement is:
A. Valid
B. Void ab initio
C. Voidable
D. Enforceable
✅ B
21. Communication of acceptance must be:
A. Conditional
B. Qualified
C. Absolute and unqualified
D. Registered
✅ C
22. Res judicata is contained in:
A. Sec 9 CPC
B. Sec 10 CPC
C. Sec 11 CPC
D. Sec 96 CPC
✅ C
23. True/False: Every decree is an order.
A. True
B. False
✅ A
24. Caveat is filed to:
A. Obtain stay
B. Prevent ex parte orders
C. Dismiss suit
D. Stop execution
✅ B
25. Tort law mainly deals with:
A. Crimes
B. Private wrongs
C. Constitutional remedies
D. Contracts
✅ B
26. Negligence requires:
A. Duty of care
B. Breach
C. Damage
D. All of these
✅ D
27. Assertion (A): Foreseeability is important in negligence.
Reason (R): Liability depends on reasonably foreseeable harm.
A. Both true & R explains A
B. Both true but unrelated
C. A false
D. Both false
✅ A
28. Which case established the neighbour principle?
A. Salomon
B. Donoghue v Stevenson
C. Carlill
D. Rylands
✅ B
29. A company becomes a separate legal entity upon:
A. Agreement
B. Registration
C. Share issue
D. Audit
✅ B
30. True/False: A company can own property in its own name.
A. True
B. False
✅ A
31. Dishonour of cheque is governed by:
A. Contract Act
B. CPC
C. NI Act
D. Evidence Act
✅ C
32. MOA mainly defines:
A. Internal management
B. Objects of company
C. Audit process
D. Salary structure
✅ B
33. Professional misconduct proceedings are generally initiated before:
A. Civil Court
B. Police
C. Bar Council
D. High Court
✅ C
34. Advocates are prohibited from:
A. Appearing in court
B. Advising clients
C. Soliciting work through advertising
D. Drafting petitions
✅ C
35. Assertion (A): Advocates owe duty to court.
Reason (R): Justice administration depends on ethical advocacy.
A. Both true & R explains A
B. Both true but unrelated
C. A false
D. Both false
✅ A
36. “Ubi Jus Ibi Remedium” means:
A. Hear the other side
B. No bias
C. Where there is a right, there is a remedy
D. Buyer beware
✅ C
37. “Caveat Emptor” means:
A. Seller beware
B. Buyer beware
C. Court beware
D. Witness beware
✅ B
38. True/False: Judicial Review forms part of Basic Structure.
A. True
B. False
✅ A
39. Basic Structure Doctrine was propounded in:
A. Golaknath
B. Kesavananda Bharati
C. Minerva Mills
D. Maneka Gandhi
✅ B
40. PIL stands for:
A. Public Interest Litigation
B. Public Investigation Law
C. Private Interest Litigation
D. Personal Injury Law
✅ A
41. Arbitration is a form of:
A. Criminal trial
B. ADR
C. Writ remedy
D. Appeal
✅ B
42. True/False: Arbitration award is generally binding.
A. True
B. False
✅ A
43. Lok Adalat functions under:
A. CPC
B. CrPC
C. Legal Services Authorities Act
D. Evidence Act
✅ C
44. Lok Adalat award is treated as:
A. Contract
B. Court decree
C. FIR
D. Charge-sheet
✅ B
45. Free legal aid is associated with:
A. Article 39A
B. Article 48A
C. Article 51A
D. Article 21A
✅ A
46. True/False: Natural justice includes rule against bias.
A. True
B. False
✅ A
47. AIBE is conducted by:
A. NTA
B. BCI
C. UGC
D. Supreme Court
✅ B
48. The primary objective of AIBE is to test:
A. Practical legal competence
B. Judicial aptitude
C. Research skills
D. Mooting skills
✅ A
49. The best source for AIBE preparation is:
A. Bare Acts
B. PYQs
C. Ethics Rules
D. All of these
✅ D
50. The most effective revision strategy is:
A. Bare Acts + PYQs + Mock Tests
B. Current Affairs only
C. Notes only
D. Guesswork
✅ A
– Team Lawyer Talks