⚖️ APO 2026 (Bihar + U.P) Daily Practice Set – 6

This APO Daily Practice Set–6 is specially designed for Bihar APO and U.P. APO aspirants. It includes conceptual, Bare Act-based, and PYQ-oriented questions covering Constitutional Law, Criminal Law, Evidence, Procedural Law, and Legal Aptitude.


1. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution was amended by:
A. 24th Amendment
B. 42nd Amendment
C. 44th Amendment
D. 52nd Amendment

2. Which Article guarantees Freedom of Speech and Expression?
A. Article 19(1)(a)
B. Article 21
C. Article 14
D. Article 25

3. True/False: Right to Property is a Fundamental Right.
A. True
B. False

4. Article 226 empowers:
A. Supreme Court
B. High Courts
C. Parliament
D. President

5. The writ of Quo Warranto is issued against:
A. Illegal detention
B. Public office holder
C. Judicial order
D. Government policy

6. Article 20(2) provides protection against:
A. Double jeopardy
B. Self-incrimination
C. Preventive detention
D. Arrest

7. Murder is punishable under:
A. Section 299 IPC
B. Section 300 IPC
C. Section 302 IPC
D. Section 304 IPC

8. Culpable homicide is defined under:
A. Section 299 IPC
B. Section 300 IPC
C. Section 302 IPC
D. Section 304A IPC

9. True/False: Every murder is culpable homicide.
A. True
B. False

10. Attempt to murder is punishable under:
A. Section 307 IPC
B. Section 308 IPC
C. Section 302 IPC
D. Section 304 IPC

11. Theft is an offence against:
A. Property
B. Person
C. State
D. Marriage

12. Extortion is defined under:
A. Section 378 IPC
B. Section 383 IPC
C. Section 390 IPC
D. Section 415 IPC

13. Robbery is aggravated form of:
A. Theft or Extortion
B. Defamation
C. Assault
D. Mischief

14. Dacoity requires at least:
A. 4 persons
B. 5 persons
C. 6 persons
D. 7 persons

15. True/False: Criminal breach of trust requires entrustment of property.
A. True
B. False

16. FIR is recorded under:
A. Section 154 CrPC
B. Section 161 CrPC
C. Section 173 CrPC
D. Section 190 CrPC

17. Police report (Charge Sheet) is filed under:
A. Section 154
B. Section 161
C. Section 173
D. Section 190

18. Cognizable offences are generally:
A. Serious offences
B. Civil wrongs
C. Contractual disputes
D. Revenue matters

19. Anticipatory Bail is provided under:
A. Section 438 CrPC
B. Section 437 CrPC
C. Section 439 CrPC
D. Section 436 CrPC

20. True/False: Anticipatory bail can be granted before arrest.
A. True
B. False

21. Dying declaration is relevant under:
A. Section 32 Evidence Act
B. Section 45
C. Section 17
D. Section 24

22. Admissions are dealt with under:
A. Sections 17–31 Evidence Act
B. Section 45
C. Section 60
D. Section 101

23. Expert opinion is relevant under:
A. Section 45
B. Section 24
C. Section 32
D. Section 17

24. Primary evidence means:
A. Original document
B. Copy
C. Oral statement
D. Hearsay

25. True/False: Hearsay evidence is generally inadmissible.
A. True
B. False

26. Consideration is defined under:
A. Section 2(d) Contract Act
B. Section 10
C. Section 11
D. Section 14

27. A minor’s agreement is:
A. Valid
B. Void
C. Voidable
D. Illegal

28. Free consent excludes:
A. Coercion
B. Offer
C. Acceptance
D. Proposal

29. Agreement without consideration is generally:
A. Void
B. Valid
C. Illegal
D. Enforceable

30. True/False: Every contract is an agreement.
A. True
B. False

31. Tort means:
A. Civil wrong
B. Criminal wrong
C. Constitutional wrong
D. International wrong

32. Defamation protects:
A. Reputation
B. Property
C. Liberty
D. Equality

33. Rylands v Fletcher is related to:
A. Strict Liability
B. Negligence
C. Defamation
D. Nuisance

34. Res Ipsa Loquitur means:
A. Thing speaks for itself
B. Let buyer beware
C. No injury no action
D. Good faith

35. True/False: Negligence is a tort.
A. True
B. False

36. The Constitution of India came into force on:
A. 15 August 1947
B. 26 January 1950
C. 26 November 1949
D. 24 January 1950

37. Fundamental Duties are contained in:
A. Part III
B. Part IV
C. Part IVA
D. Part V

38. DPSPs are contained in:
A. Part III
B. Part IV
C. Part IVA
D. Part II

39. Judicial Review is part of:
A. Basic Structure
B. DPSP
C. Fundamental Duties
D. Emergency

40. True/False: Parliament can destroy the Basic Structure.
A. True
B. False

41. Who propounded the Command Theory of Law?
A. Austin
B. Kelsen
C. Hart
D. Pound

42. Grundnorm theory is associated with:
A. Austin
B. Hart
C. Kelsen
D. Savigny

43. Historical School is associated with:
A. Savigny
B. Austin
C. Hart
D. Pound

44. Law as Social Engineering was propounded by:
A. Austin
B. Pound
C. Hart
D. Bentham

45. True/False: Custom is a source of law.
A. True
B. False

46. Arbitration is governed by:
A. Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
B. CPC
C. CrPC
D. Evidence Act

47. Lok Adalat functions under:
A. Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
B. CPC
C. CrPC
D. Constitution

48. Permanent Lok Adalat deals with:
A. Public Utility Services
B. Criminal Appeals
C. Constitutional Cases
D. Election Disputes

49. ADR includes:
A. Arbitration
B. Mediation
C. Conciliation
D. All of these

50. For APO exams, the most important source remains:
A. Bare Acts
B. Newspapers only
C. Guidebooks only
D. Coaching notes only


📌 ANSWER KEY

1-B, 2-A, 3-B, 4-B, 5-B, 6-A, 7-C, 8-A, 9-A, 10-A
11-A, 12-B, 13-A, 14-B, 15-A, 16-A, 17-C, 18-A, 19-A, 20-A
21-A, 22-A, 23-A, 24-A, 25-A, 26-A, 27-B, 28-A, 29-A, 30-A
31-A, 32-A, 33-A, 34-A, 35-A, 36-B, 37-C, 38-B, 39-A, 40-B
41-A, 42-C, 43-A, 44-B, 45-A, 46-A, 47-A, 48-A, 49-D, 50-A


– Team Lawyer Talks

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