Master your judiciary preparation with this expert-level set of 50 MCQs covering Constitutional Law, IPC, CrPC, CPC, Evidence Act, Jurisprudence, and landmark legal principles. Designed for PCS-J, APO, and Judicial Services aspirants aiming for high-level conceptual clarity and exam accuracy.
- Which case propounded the doctrine of prospective overruling in India?
A. Kesavananda Bharati
B. Golaknath
C. Minerva Mills
D. Maneka Gandhi
Answer: B
2. True or False: Article 13 applies to constitutional amendments.
Answer: False (as per Kesavananda & later rulings)
3. “A delegated authority cannot further delegate” is expressed by:
A. Res judicata
B. Delegatus non potest delegare
C. Audi alteram partem
D. Volenti non fit injuria
Answer: B
4. Doctrine of pith and substance is applied in:
A. Criminal law
B. Constitutional law
C. Tort law
D. Contract law
Answer: B
5. Which Article embodies protection against ex post facto laws?
A. Article 19
B. Article 20(1)
C. Article 21
D. Article 22
Answer: B
6. True or False: Preventive detention is completely prohibited under Indian Constitution.
Answer: False
7. Under IPC, “fraudulently” is defined under:
A. Section 24
B. Section 25
C. Section 26
D. Section 52
Answer: B
8. Culpable homicide is genus and murder is:
A. Species
B. Exception
C. Defence
D. Tort
Answer: A
9. “Mens rea” is generally irrelevant in:
A. Murder
B. Theft
C. Strict liability offences
D. Cheating
Answer: C
10. True or False: Preparation is punishable in all offences.
Answer: False
11. Criminal conspiracy under Section 120A IPC requires:
A. Mere intention
B. Agreement
C. Knowledge only
D. Negligence
Answer: B
12. Grave and sudden provocation is:
A. General exception
B. Exception to murder
C. Defence under CrPC
D. Tortious defence
Answer: B
13. “Actus curiae neminem gravabit” means:
A. Court acts arbitrarily
B. Court’s act shall prejudice no one
C. Ignorance excuses
D. Delay defeats equity
Answer: B
14. Under CrPC, cognizable offences permit:
A. Arrest without warrant
B. Arrest with Magistrate permission only
C. No investigation
D. Civil remedy only
Answer: A
15. True or False: FIR is substantive evidence.
Answer: False
16. Anticipatory bail is granted under:
A. Section 436 CrPC
B. Section 437 CrPC
C. Section 438 CrPC
D. Section 439 CrPC
Answer: C
17. Police report under CrPC is filed under:
A. Section 154
B. Section 161
C. Section 173
D. Section 190
Answer: C
18. Sessions Court ordinarily takes cognizance after:
A. Direct FIR
B. Police investigation
C. Committal by Magistrate
D. Warrant issuance
Answer: C
19. True or False: Double jeopardy is recognized under Article 20(2).
Answer: True
20. “Bail is rule, jail is exception” primarily reflects:
A. Presumption of innocence
B. Judicial activism
C. Police power
D. Preventive detention
Answer: A
21. Res judicata is provided under:
A. Section 9 CPC
B. Section 10 CPC
C. Section 11 CPC
D. Section 12 CPC
Answer: C
22. Res sub judice is under:
A. Section 10 CPC
B. Section 11 CPC
C. Section 12 CPC
D. Section 14 CPC
Answer: A
23. True or False: CPC is substantive law.
Answer: False
24. Caveat is provided under:
A. Section 144 CPC
B. Section 148A CPC
C. Section 151 CPC
D. Section 80 CPC
Answer: B
25. Temporary injunction is governed by:
A. Order 7 CPC
B. Order 21 CPC
C. Order 39 CPC
D. Order 41 CPC
Answer: C
26. Under Evidence Act, “proved” is defined under:
A. Section 3
B. Section 5
C. Section 24
D. Section 45
Answer: A
27. True or False: Hearsay evidence is generally inadmissible.
Answer: True
28. Dying declaration is relevant under:
A. Section 24
B. Section 32
C. Section 45
D. Section 65
Answer: B
29. Estoppel is contained in:
A. Section 114
B. Section 115
C. Section 116
D. Section 117
Answer: B
30. Section 165 Evidence Act empowers:
A. Police officer
B. Judge
C. Advocate
D. Witness
Answer: B
31. “Res ipsa loquitur” is associated with:
A. Criminal law
B. Contract
C. Tort
D. Evidence
Answer: C
32. True or False: Negligence requires duty of care.
Answer: True
33. Strict liability principle was established in:
A. Donoghue v. Stevenson
B. Rylands v. Fletcher
C. Ashby v. White
D. MC Mehta
Answer: B
34. Absolute liability principle in India evolved through:
A. Kesavananda Bharati
B. MC Mehta
C. Golaknath
D. Maneka Gandhi
Answer: B
35. “Injuria sine damno” means:
A. Damage without injury
B. Legal injury without actual damage
C. No injury no remedy
D. Actual damage essential
Answer: B
36. True or False: Damnum sine injuria is actionable.
Answer: False
37. Under Contract Act, consideration may move from:
A. Promisee only
B. Promisor only
C. Third party
D. Court
Answer: C
38. Minor’s agreement is:
A. Voidable
B. Illegal
C. Void ab initio
D. Enforceable
Answer: C
39. “Consensus ad idem” means:
A. Compensation
B. Meeting of minds
C. Free consent
D. Quasi contract
Answer: B
40. True or False: Every agreement is enforceable by law.
Answer: False
41. Which case evolved basic structure doctrine?
A. Golaknath
B. Kesavananda Bharati
C. Minerva Mills
D. Waman Rao
Answer: B
42. Judicial review is part of:
A. Basic structure
B. Directive Principles
C. Legal fiction
D. Natural justice only
Answer: A
43. True or False: Parliament can abolish judicial review completely.
Answer: False
44. “Audi alteram partem” means:
A. Hear the other side
B. No one judge in own cause
C. Justice delayed
D. Equity follows law
Answer: A
45. “Nemo judex in causa sua” means:
A. Evidence must be direct
B. No one should judge own case
C. Ignorance excuses
D. Law is supreme
Answer: B
46. Doctrine of eclipse applies to:
A. Post-constitutional laws
B. Pre-constitutional laws
C. Criminal laws only
D. Tax laws only
Answer: B
47. True or False: Article 32 itself is a Fundamental Right.
Answer: True
48. PIL stands for:
A. Public Interest Litigation
B. Public Internal Law
C. Private Interest Law
D. Personal Injury Litigation
Answer: A
49. Standard of proof in criminal cases is:
A. Preponderance of probabilities
B. Beyond reasonable doubt
C. Prima facie proof
D. Conclusive evidence
Answer: B
50. Standard of proof in civil cases is:
A. Beyond reasonable doubt
B. Absolute certainty
C. Preponderance of probabilities
D. Suspicion
Answer: C
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