This expert-level set of 50 MCQs is specially curated for LLM entrance aspirants targeting top national law universities and postgraduate law programs. Covering Constitutional Law, Jurisprudence, International Law, IPC, Contract, Torts, and advanced legal reasoning, these questions are designed to test conceptual clarity and analytical thinking.
1. Which theory of sovereignty was propounded by John Austin?
A. Popular sovereignty
B. Political sovereignty
C. Legal sovereignty
D. Plural sovereignty
Answer: C
2. True or False: Kelsen rejected the concept of Grundnorm.
Answer: False
3. “Law is the command of sovereign” was given by:
A. Savigny
B. Roscoe Pound
C. Austin
D. Bentham
Answer: C
4. Which school of jurisprudence is associated with Savigny?
A. Historical School
B. Analytical School
C. Natural School
D. Sociological School
Answer: A
5. Roscoe Pound described law as:
A. Command of sovereign
B. Social engineering
C. Volksgeist
D. Natural order
Answer: B
6. True or False: Hart criticized Austin’s command theory.
Answer: True
7. The concept of “Grundnorm” was introduced by:
A. Hart
B. Austin
C. Kelsen
D. Salmond
Answer: C
8. “Pacta sunt servanda” relates to:
A. Constitutional law
B. Criminal law
C. International law
D. Tort law
Answer: C
9. Which is NOT a source of International Law under Article 38 of ICJ Statute?
A. Judicial decisions
B. Customs
C. Equity decrees
D. International conventions
Answer: C
10. True or False: Soft law is legally binding international law.
Answer: False
11. Monism and dualism relate to:
A. Criminal jurisprudence
B. Constitutional amendments
C. Relation between municipal and international law
D. Administrative law
Answer: C
12. Extradition differs from asylum because:
A. Both are identical
B. One protects and other surrenders accused
C. Both are criminal punishments
D. Both are civil remedies
Answer: B
13. Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted in:
A. 1945
B. 1948
C. 1950
D. 1966
Answer: B
14. True or False: ICJ has compulsory jurisdiction over all disputes.
Answer: False
15. The doctrine of basic structure was evolved in:
A. Minerva Mills
B. Golaknath
C. Kesavananda Bharati
D. Maneka Gandhi
Answer: C
16. Which case expanded Article 21 through procedural due process?
A. ADM Jabalpur
B. A.K. Gopalan
C. Maneka Gandhi
D. Golaknath
Answer: C
17. True or False: Article 32 itself is a Fundamental Right.
Answer: True
18. Doctrine of eclipse applies to:
A. Pre-constitutional laws
B. Post-constitutional laws
C. Ordinances only
D. Tax laws
Answer: A
19. Which doctrine prevents excessive delegation?
A. Pith and substance
B. Colorable legislation
C. Essential legislative function
D. Harmonious construction
Answer: C
20. “Audi alteram partem” is part of:
A. Equity
B. Natural justice
C. Tort
D. Constitutional amendment
Answer: B
21. True or False: Promissory estoppel can operate against the Government.
Answer: True
22. “Volenti non fit injuria” is a defence in:
A. Contract
B. Tort
C. Criminal law
D. Evidence
Answer: B
23. Rylands v. Fletcher established principle of:
A. Negligence
B. Absolute liability
C. Strict liability
D. Vicarious liability
Answer: C
24. MC Mehta case evolved:
A. Strict liability
B. Absolute liability
C. Negligence
D. Remoteness of damage
Answer: B
25. True or False: Damnum sine injuria is actionable.
Answer: False
26. “Injuria sine damno” means:
A. Damage without legal injury
B. Legal injury without actual damage
C. Both injury and damage
D. No remedy
Answer: B
27. Consideration under Indian Contract Act may move from:
A. Promisee only
B. Promisor only
C. Third party
D. Court
Answer: C
28. True or False: Every agreement is a contract.
Answer: False
29. Privity of contract means:
A. Stranger can sue
B. Only parties can sue
C. Third party rights mandatory
D. Void agreement
Answer: B
30. Quantum meruit is based on:
A. Equity
B. Criminal liability
C. Constitutional remedy
D. Estoppel only
Answer: A
31. Under IPC, “dishonestly” is defined under:
A. Section 23
B. Section 24
C. Section 25
D. Section 26
Answer: B
32. True or False: Motive and intention are identical.
Answer: False
33. Criminal conspiracy under IPC requires:
A. Mere intention
B. Agreement to commit offence
C. Preparation only
D. Negligence
Answer: B
34. Section 300 IPC exceptions reduce liability from:
A. Theft to robbery
B. Murder to culpable homicide
C. Attempt to preparation
D. Hurt to grievous hurt
Answer: B
35. “Mens rea” is generally essential in:
A. Civil wrongs only
B. Criminal offences
C. Constitutional law
D. Taxation
Answer: B
36. True or False: Hearsay evidence is always inadmissible without exceptions.
Answer: True
37. Dying declaration is exception to:
A. Documentary evidence rule
B. Hearsay rule
C. Oral evidence rule
D. Best evidence rule
Answer: B
38. Estoppel under Evidence Act is contained in:
A. Section 114
B. Section 115
C. Section 116
D. Section 117
Answer: B
39. Burden of proof primarily lies on:
A. Judge
B. Defendant
C. Person asserting fact
D. Witness
Answer: C
40. True or False: Accomplice evidence is inadmissible unless corroborated.
Answer: False
41. Res judicata is based on principle of:
A. Public policy
B. Equity
C. Criminal liability
D. Negligence
Answer: A
42. Caveat under CPC is provided under:
A. Section 80
B. Section 144
C. Section 148A
D. Section 151
Answer: C
43. True or False: Review and appeal are identical remedies.
Answer: False
44. Temporary injunction is governed by:
A. Order 21 CPC
B. Order 39 CPC
C. Order 41 CPC
D. Order 43 CPC
Answer: B
45. Doctrine of pith and substance applies in:
A. Contract law
B. Constitutional law
C. Tort law
D. Criminal law
Answer: B
46. Which case recognized Right to Privacy as Fundamental Right?
A. Maneka Gandhi
B. Puttaswamy
C. ADM Jabalpur
D. Golaknath
Answer: B
47. True or False: Arbitration award is always appealable.
Answer: False
48. Lok Adalat award is:
A. Advisory
B. Binding
C. Optional
D. Reviewable on merits
Answer: B
49. Standard of proof in civil cases is:
A. Beyond reasonable doubt
B. Absolute certainty
C. Preponderance of probabilities
D. Conclusive proof
Answer: C
50. Standard of proof in criminal cases is:
A. Strong suspicion
B. Preponderance of probabilities
C. Beyond reasonable doubt
D. Prima facie satisfaction
Answer: C
– Team Lawyer Talks