1. In a review petition under Article 137 of the Constitution, oral hearing in open court:
(a) is mandatory in all cases.
(b) is mandatory in all cases where the decision being reviewed imposes the death penalty on the petitioner.
(c) when both counsel pray for open hearing.
(d) is mandatory in all cases where the decision being reviewed deals with a matter of public importance
2. Defamation is an
(a) Immoral Act
(b) Unethical Behaviour by media
(c) Corrupt and indecent behaviour in public
(d) Civil wrong and criminal offence
3. The punishment for the harassment of his relatives with a view to coercing her or any person related to her for dowry is imprisonment for a term which may the woman by her husband or any of extend upto:
(a) One year
(b) Two years
(c) Three years
(d) Five years
4. Who are effected by Section 494 of IPC relating to the crime of bigamy?
(a) Only male Hindus
(b) Male and female Hindus
(c) Male Muslims
(d) Male of all religions
5. Under which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code, it is an offence to voluntarily omit to supply the needs and wants of a helpless person for whom the person is bound by a lawful contract?
(a) Section 296
(b) Section 468
(c) Section 491
(d) Section 508
6. A man by deceit caused a woman, not lawfully married to him, to believe that she is lawfully married to him and to cohabit with him on that behalf, is dealt under Section ……….. of the Indian Penal Code.
(a) 497
(b) 495
(c) 494
(d) 493
7. Under which section of the Indian Penal Code is the non-treatment of victims by Public or Private hospitals punishable?
(a) Section 166B
(c) Section 228A
(b) Section 165A
(d) Section 376D
8. A knowing that B has murdered Z, against B to hide the body with the intention of screening B from punishment. A is liable under section ____________ of IPC
(a) 302
(b) 109
(c) 204
(d) 201
9. A, with the intention of causing Z to be convicted of a criminal conspiracy, writes a letter in imitation of Z’s handwriting purporting to be addressed to an accomplice in such criminal conspiracy. and puts the letter in a place which he knows that the officers of the police are likely to search — A has committed an Offence under
(a) Section 256 of IPC
(b) Section 192 of IPC
(c) Section 195A of IPC
(d) Section 201 of IPC
10. Section 192 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 deals with
(a) Giving False Evidence
(b) Fabricating Evidence
(c) Threatening any person to give false evidence
(d) Punishment for False Evidence.
11. How much punishment may be given to a person accused of giving false evidence in a judicial proceeding?
(a) Seven years of imprisonment
(b) Seven years of imprisonment and fine
(c) Seven years of imprisonment or fine
(d) Five years of imprisonment and fine
12. Person arrested not to be detained more than twenty-four hours is dealt under section ___________ of the Cr.P.C
(a) 55
(b) 56
(c) 57
(d) None of the above
13. In which case did the Supreme Court lay down guidelines regarding the arrest procedure to prevent abuse of power by police officers?
(a) D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal
(b) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(c) K.M. Nanavati v. State of Maharashtra
(d) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
14. Who has the authority to make an arrest under the CrPC?
(a) Only police officers
(b) Only magistrates
(c) Police officers and private individuals under certain circumstances
(d) None of the above
15. Under which provision an arrested person has right to meet an advocate of his choice during interrogation
(a) Section 39 of Cr.P.C.
(b) Section 40 of Cr.P.C.
(c) Section 41A of Cr.P.C.
(d) Section 41D of Cr.P.C.
16. Under which conditional order for removal of nuisance Section of Cr.P.C. may be issued
(a) Section 110
(b) Section: 130
(c) Section 133
(d) Section 134
17. Under Section 200 Cr.P.C. recording of pre-summoning evidence may be dispensed with it:
(a) The complaint is supported by an affidavit of the complainant
(b) The complaint is made in writing by a public servant
(c) The Magistrate feels that ends of Justice require pre-summoning evidence to be dispensed with
(d) None of the above
18. Under which of the following sections of the Cr.P.C. the magistrate shall dismiss the complaint?
(a) Section 202
(b) Section 201
(c) Section 203
(d) None of the above
19. Which section of Evidence Act with Primary evidence?
(a) Section 60
(b) Section 62
(c) Section 64
(d) Section 65
20. All statements which the court permits or requires to be made before it witness in relation to matters of fact under inquiry is/are
(a) Primary evidence
(b) Oral evidence
(c) Hearsay evidence
(d) Both (a) & (b)
21. A witness who is unable to speak, gives his evidence by writing in open Court. Evidence so given shall be deemed to be—
(a) Oral evidence
(b) Documentary evidence
(c) Primary evidence
(d) Secondary evidence
22. A document can be proved
(a) By producing it before the Court
(b) By examining the party who has produced it
(c) By examining the person in whose hand writing the document is written or signed
(d) By examining the person in whose favour the document is executed
23. Photostat copy of family settlement deed is allowed to be produced before the court as an
(a) primary evidence
(b) original evidence
(c) secondary evidence
(d) electronic evidence
24. “Best evidence rule” is exclusively associated with the rule embodied in
(a) Section 92 of the Evidence Act
(b) Section 90 of the Evidence Act
(c) Section 93 of the Evidence Act
(d) Section 91 of the Evidence Act
25. The principle stated in Section 106 of the Indian Evidence Act is an application of the principle of
(a) res gestae
(b) res ipsa loquitur
(c) res judicata
(d) rebus sic stantibus
ANSWER KEY:
1-B 2-D 3-C 4-B 5-C 6-D 7-A 8-D 9-B 10-B 11-B 12-C 13-A 14-C 15-D 16-C 17-B 18-C 19-B 20-B 21-A 22-A 23-C 24-D 25-B
– Team Lawyer Talks