APO 2026 Exam Cracker Question Bank

1. Section 116 of the Evidence Act is applicable to:

(a) movable Property

(b) immovable Property

(c) intellectual Property

(d) All of the above

2. The Law declared by the Supreme Court of India is binding on all Courts as provided under:

(a) Article 32

(b) Article 141

(c) Article 226

(d) Article 368

3. In India, the Governor of a State retires at the age of

(a) 60

(b) 65

(c) 62

(d) There is no retirement age

4. The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) was declared as

unconstitutional in:

(a) S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (1981)

(b) In re Presidential Reference of 1998

(c) Sakal Chand v. Union of India (1977)

(d) SC Adv. on Record Association v. Union of India (2015)

5. Which of the following Articles contains right to property?

(a) Article 31A

(b) Article 19

(c) Article 300

(d) Article 300A

6. Doctrine of Pleasure is associated with which Article of the Constitution?

(a) Article 323

(b) Article 308

(c) Article 309

(d) Article 310

7. Under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution the Supreme Court has

powers to review its decisions?

(a) Article 135

(b) Article 136

(c) Article 137

(d) Article 143

8. In which of the following cases the court has laid down that ‘Right to life’ does not

include “Right to die?

(a) State v. Sanjay Kr. Bhatia

(b) Smt. Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab

(c) R v. Holiday

(d) P. Rathinam v. UOI

9. Which one of the following is a ground which is not mentioned in both Articles 15 and

Article 16 on which the State cannot discriminate?

(a) Race

(b) Caste

(c) Creed

(d) Place of Birth

10. A bill presented in Parliament becomes an Act after:

(a) it is passed by both Houses

(b) the President has given his assent

(c) the Prime Minister has signed it

(d) it is so declared by the Supreme court

11. Which Article states that the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the

Legislative Assembly of the state?

(a) Article 164

(b) Article 174

(c) Article 184

(d) Article 194

12. Power to regulate the right of citizenship by law under the Indian Constitution vests

in the:

(a) President

(b) Supreme Court

(c) Governor

(d) Parliament

13. In educational institutions reservation of seats in favor of Scheduled Castes and

Scheduled Tribes is governed by—

(a) Article 15(4) of the Constitution

(b) Article 16(4) of the Constitution

(c) Article 29(2) of the Constitution

(d) Article 14 of the Constitution

14. To determine whether a practice is protected by Article 25(1) of the Constitution of

India, the party seeking such protection has to establish that:

(a) the practice is not secular in nature.

(b) the practice is an essential religious practice.

(c) the practice is allowed by the religion in question.

(d) the practice is not prohibited by the religion in question

15. Which is the appropriate writ to be issued against a person believed to be holding a public office to which he is not entitled?

(a) Habeas Corpus

(b) Mandamus

(c) Prohibition

(d) Quo warranto

16. In Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, (2005) , the Supreme Court:

(a) Struck down Section 66A, Information Technology Act, 2000 in its entirety for violating Article 19(1) (a) and not being saved by Article 19(2).

(b) Struck down Section 66 A, Information Technology Act, 2000 in its entirety for violating Articles 14 and Article 21.

(c) Upheld Section 66A, Information Technology Act, 2000 but read down the scope of the provision to bring it in conformity with Article 19(1) (a) and Article 19(2)

(d) Upheld Section 66A, Information Technology Act, 2000 but read down the scope of the provision to bring it in conformity with Articles 14 and 21.

17. The fundamental right can never be amended as it is beyond the purview of the

parliament, such ruling was given in

(a) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

(b) Golaknath v. State of Punjab

(c) Minerva mill v. Union of India

(d) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narayan

18. Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment:

(a) Is guaranteed to all citizens of India

(b) Is guaranteed to all residents of India

(c) Is available to persons of Indian origin irrespective of citizenship

(d) Is not provided for in the Constitution

19. Rights under Article 19 of the Constitution of India are:

(a) Available to all person in India

(b) Available only to citizens of India

(c) Are available to persons of foreign origin

(d) Both (b) and (c) above

20. Right to form association under Article 19(3) of the Constitution includes:

(a) Right to strike

(b) Right to collective bargaining

(c) Right to lockout

(d) None of these

21. A proclamation of emergency under Article 352 must be approved within ______ by a

resolution of both the Houses of Parliament.

(a) 1 month

(b) 2 months

(c) 3 months

(d) 6 months

22. Which article provides that employment of children in hazardous factories is

prohibited?

(a) Article 21

(b) Article 22

(c) Article 23

(d) Article 24

23. Supreme Commander of Indian Armed Forces is ……

(a) President of India

(b) Prime Minister of India

(c) Defence Minister

(d) Chief of Army Stall

24. Highest law officer of a state is:

(a) Attorney-General

(b) Advocate-General of the State

(c) Solicitor-General

(d) None of the above

25. Who decides disputes of disqualification of a Member of Parliament?

(a) Prime minister

(b) Concerned House of Parliament

(c) Election Commission

(d) President in consultation with Election Commission

ANSWER KEY:

1-B 2-B 3-D 4-D 5-D 6-D 7-C 8-B 9-C 10-B 11-A 12-D 13-A 14-B 15-D 16-A 17-B 18-A 19-B 20-B 21-A 22-D 23-A 24-B 25-D

– Team Lawyer Talks

Leave a Comment

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *

Scroll to Top
Receive the latest contents

Subscribe to us.

Get notified about new articles