1. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the right of private defence of property commences when-
(a) The property is actually stolen.
(b) The offender enters the property.
(c) A reasonable apprehension of danger to the property arises.
(d) The police refuse to act.
2. The right of private defence of property against theft continues until-
(a) The offender is arrested.
(b) The offender has effected his retreat with the property, or public authorities intervene, or the property is recovered.
(c) The owner files an FIR.
(d) The trial begins.
3. Which of the following offences is not included within the right of private defence of property?
(a) Theft
(b) Robbery
(c) Criminal trespass
(d) Defamation
4. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which of the following is an essential ingredient of theft?
(a) Dishonest intention.
(b) Movable property.
(c) Moving the property without consent.
(d) All of the above.
5. ‘A’ finds a gold chain on a public road and sells it without making reasonable efforts to trace the owner. ‘A’ commits-
(a) Theft
(b) Robbery
(c) Dishonest misappropriation of property
(d) Criminal breach of trust
6. Which of the following is an essential ingredient of cheating?
(a) Deception.
(b) Fraudulent or dishonest inducement.
(c) Delivery of property or inducement to act or omit.
(d) All of the above.
7. ‘A’ falsely represents himself as an Income Tax Officer and dishonestly induces ‘B’ to hand over money. ‘A’ is guilty of-
(a) Extortion.
(b) Cheating by personation.
(c) Criminal intimidation.
(d) Criminal breach of trust.
8. Which of the following correctly distinguishes extortion from theft?
(a) Theft always involves fear of injury.
(b) In extortion, property is delivered because of fear induced by the offender.
(c) Theft applies only to immovable property.
(d) Extortion can never involve money.
9. Which of the following is an essential ingredient of criminal trespass?
(a) Mere unauthorized entry.
(b) Entry with the owner’s consent.
(c) Entry with intent to commit an offence or to intimidate, insult or annoy the person in possession.
(d) Entry into government property only.
10. ‘A’ knowingly purchases a stolen motorcycle at a very low price from a stranger. He is liable for-
(a) Theft.
(b) Criminal breach of trust.
(c) Dishonestly receiving stolen property.
(d) Criminal intimidation.
11. A dishonest concealment of facts may amount to-
(a) Criminal intimidation.
(b) Theft.
(c) Cheating.
(d) Mischief.
12. Which statement is correct regarding the right of private defence?
(a) It is available only for protection of one’s own body.
(b) It extends only to immovable property.
(c) It extends to the defence of one’s own or another person’s body and property, subject to statutory restrictions.
(d) It is available only after actual injury.
13. Which of the following is not an offence against property under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
(a) Theft.
(b) Cheating.
(c) Criminal breach of trust.
(d) Defamation.
14. A person dishonestly signs another person’s name on a valuable security without authority. The offence committed is-
(a) Cheating.
(b) Criminal intimidation.
(c) Forgery.
(d) Extortion.
15. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Every culpable homicide is murder.
(b) Murder and culpable homicide are identical offences.
(c) Every murder is culpable homicide, but every culpable homicide is not murder.
(d) Culpable homicide is punishable more severely than murder.
16. Under the BNSS, an accused has the right to be defended by- (a) Any police officer
(b) Any public servant
(c) An advocate of his choice
(d) Any relative
17. Which of the following is the primary object of granting bail?
(a) To punish the accused before trial
(b) To secure the attendance of the accused during trial
(c) To compensate the victim
(d) To conclude the investigation
18. Which of the following statements regarding a summons is correct?
(a) It is issued only in warrant cases.
(b) It is issued to secure the appearance of a person before a court.
(c) It can be issued only after conviction.
(d) It is issued only against police officers.
19. Which of the following is the primary object of framing a charge?
(a) To pronounce the judgment.
(b) To inform the accused clearly of the accusation against him.
(c) To begin the investigation.
(d) To record the confession of the accused.
20. Which of the following is not a mode of taking cognizance of an offence by a Magistrate?
(a) Upon receiving a complaint.
(b) Upon a police report.
(c) Upon information from any person other than a police officer.
(d) Upon conviction of the accused.
21. A charge may be altered by the Court-
(a) Only before the trial begins.
(b) Only with the consent of the accused.
(c) At any time before the judgment is pronounced.
(d) Only after the prosecution evidence is closed.
22. Which of the following is the main object of a criminal investigation?
(a) To punish the accused.
(b) To collect evidence relating to the commission of an offence.
(c) To record the judgment.
(d) To determine civil liability.
23. Which of the following statements regarding an FIR is correct?
(a) It can be lodged only by the victim.
(b) It is evidence of guilt.
(c) It sets the criminal law into motion in respect of a cognizable offence.
(d) It is recorded only after filing of the charge-sheet.
24. The purpose of issuing a warrant is-
(a) To record evidence.
(b) To secure the presence of a person before the Court.
(c) To grant bail.
(d) To frame charges.
25. Which of the following statements regarding an acquittal is correct?
(a) It amounts to conviction.
(b) It is passed only by the police.
(c) It declares that the prosecution has failed to prove the guilt of the accused.
(d) It can be passed only by the High Court.
26. The object of examination of an accused by the Court is-
(a) To compel him to confess.
(b) To give him an opportunity to explain the incriminating circumstances appearing in evidence.
(c) To administer an oath.
(d) To record prosecution evidence.
27. Which of the following is the primary purpose of a charge-sheet?
(a) To pronounce the sentence.
(b) To place the result of the investigation before the Court.
(c) To grant bail.
(d) To frame the charge.
28. Which of the following statements is correct regarding a criminal trial?
(a) Every accused is presumed guilty until proved innocent.
(b) The prosecution has the burden of proving the guilt of the accused beyond reasonable doubt.
(c) The accused must prove his innocence in every case.
(d) Conviction may be based on mere suspicion.
29. Which of the following is the primary purpose of recording evidence during a criminal trial?
(a) To delay the proceedings.
(b) To enable the Court to determine the truth of the allegations.
(c) To assist the investigating officer.
(d) To punish the accused.
30. Which of the following statements correctly describes a criminal appeal?
(a) It can be filed only by the prosecution.
(b) It can be filed only against an acquittal.
(c) It is a statutory remedy against an order of a criminal court where permitted by law.
(d) It is available in every case without exception.
31. Which of the following facts need not be proved in a court of law?
(a) Facts in issue
(b) Relevant facts
(c) Facts admitted by the parties
(d) Facts proved by oral evidence
32. Which of the following is not a public document under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
(a) Acts of the Legislature
(b) Judicial records
(c) Public records maintained by public officers
(d) A private agreement between two individuals
33. Oral evidence under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 must ordinarily be-
(a) Hearsay evidence
(b) Indirect evidence
(c) Direct evidence
(d) Secondary evidence
34. The burden of proof in a criminal case primarily lies on-
(a) The accused
(b) The Court
(c) The defence counsel
(d) The prosecution
35. Which of the following is the best evidence of the contents of a document?
(a) Oral evidence
(b) Secondary evidence
(c) Certified copy in every case
(d) Primary evidence
36. Which of the following statements regarding admissions is correct?
(a) Every admission amounts to a confession.
(b) Every confession is an admission, but every admission is not a confession.
(c) Admissions are never relevant.
(d) Admissions can be made only before a Court.
37. Which of the following is not a competent witness under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
(a) A child capable of understanding questions
(b) A person of sound mind
(c) A person incapable of understanding questions or giving rational answers
(d) A deaf person capable of giving intelligible evidence
38. Which of the following is the primary purpose of cross-examination?
(a) To introduce new pleadings
(b) To test the truthfulness and credibility of a witness
(c) To pronounce judgment
(d) To frame charges
39. Which of the following correctly describes documentary evidence?
(a) It includes only paper documents.
(b) It excludes electronic records.
(c) It includes documents and electronic records recognized by law.
(d) It is always inferior to oral evidence.
40. Which of the following statements regarding presumptions under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 is correct?
(a) Every presumption is conclusive.
(b) Some presumptions are rebuttable, while others are conclusive as provided by law.
(c) Presumptions are never recognised in criminal law.
(d) A Court cannot draw any statutory presumption.
41. Which of the following Fundamental Rights is available only to citizens of India?
(a) Equality before law
(b) Protection of life and personal liberty
(c) Freedom of speech and expression
(d) Protection in respect of conviction for offences
42. Which constitutional remedy is issued to prohibit an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction?
(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Prohibition
(d) Certiorari
43. Which of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?
(a) Equal justice and free legal aid
(b) Organisation of village panchayats
(c) Uniform Civil Code
(d) Freedom of speech and expression
44. The doctrine of ‘Basic Structure’ was evolved by the Supreme Court in-
(a) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
(b) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
(c) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
(d) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
45. Which of the following Articles guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment?
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 15
(c) Article 16
(d) Article 19
46. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, which of the following agreements is void?
(a) Agreement with free consent and lawful consideration
(b) Agreement in restraint of marriage (subject to statutory exceptions)
(c) Contract of indemnity
(d) Contract of guarantee
47. Under the Specific Relief Act, 1963, specific performance is generally granted when-
(a) Compensation in money is always an adequate relief.
(b) Monetary compensation is not an adequate remedy in the facts of the case.
(c) The plaintiff has committed a breach of the contract.
(d) The contract is void.
48. Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, a gift of immovable property must ordinarily be-
(a) Oral only
(b) Registered but not attested
(c) Effected by a registered instrument signed by or on behalf of the donor and attested by at least two witnesses
(d) Valid even without acceptance
49. Under the Limitation Act, 1963, the object of prescribing limitation periods is to-
(a) Destroy legal rights
(b) Ensure that legal remedies are pursued within the prescribed time
(c) Increase court fees
(d) Prevent appeals
50. Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the primary object of the principle of res judicata is to-
(a) Increase litigation
(b) Delay disposal of suits
(c) Prevent the same dispute from being tried repeatedly between the same parties
(d) Restrict the jurisdiction of all civil courts
ANSWER KEY:
1-b 2-a 3-c 4-c 5-d 6-c 7-d 8-b 9-c 10-c 11-d 12-b 13-c 14-d 15-b 16-c 17-b 18-b 19-b 20-d 21-c 22-b 23-c 24-b 25-c 26-b 27-b 28-b 29-b 30-c 31-c 32-d 33-c 34-d 35-d 36-b 37-c 38-b 39-c 40-b 41-c 42-c 43-d 44-c 45-c 46-b 47-b 48-c 49-b 50-c
– Team Lawyer Talks
