1. An admission is a statement, which may be:
(a) Oral
(b) Documentary
(c) Electronic
(d) All of the above
2. Who may generally not testify?
(a) Tender years
(b) Extreme old age
(c) Disease, whether of body or mind
(d) All are correct
3. “Admissions are not conclusive proof, but may operate as estoppel.” The statement is:
(a) Correct
(b) Incorrect
(c) Not sure
(d) Partially incorrect
4. A conditional order for removal of nuisance may be made by:
(a) District Magistrate
(b) Sub-Divisional Magistrate
(c) Executive Magistrate specially empowered by the State Government
(d) All of the above
5. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which of the following is classified as an offence affecting the human body?
(a) Theft
(b) Murder
(c) Cheating
(d) Criminal Breach of Trust
6. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, when a person is arrested, the police officer shall inform:
(a) Only the District Magistrate
(b) Only the nearest Magistrate
(c) A relative, friend or any other person nominated by the arrested person
(d) Only the complainant
7. A suit relating to a public nuisance may be instituted:
(a) By the Advocate General
(b) With the leave of the Court, by two or more persons
(c) By any person
(d) Only (A) and (B)
8. Which of the following offences under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is compoundable only with the permission of the Court?
(a) Defamation
(b) Voluntarily causing hurt
(c) Criminal trespass
(d) Defamation
9. The Court of Small Causes is established by:
(a) Central Government
(b) State Government
(c) Both (A) and (B)
(d) None of the above
10. “Pleading” means:
(a) Plaint or Written Statement
(b) Only Plaint
(c) Only Written Statement
(d) None of the above
11. The doctrine of Res Gestae relates to:
(a) Documentary evidence
(b) Primary evidence
(c) Facts forming part of the same transaction
(d) Judgments of Court
12. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, leading questions may be asked without the permission of the Court during:
(a) Examination-in-Chief
(b) Cross-Examination
(c) Re-Examination
(d) All of the above
13. A Second Appeal under Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 lies on:
(a) Point of law
(b) Mixed question of law and fact
(c) Disputed question of fact
(d) Substantial question of law
14. A plaint shall be rejected:
(a) If filed in the wrong Court
(b) If proper parties are not added
(c) If it does not disclose a cause of action
(d) None of the above
15. An ex parte order and ex parte decree may be set aside under:
(a) Order IX Rules 4 & 5
(b) Order IX Rules 7 & 10
(c) Order IX Rules 11 & 12
(d) Order IX Rules 7 & 13
16. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, in which of the following cases may the Court grant bail even in a non-bailable offence?
(a) Where the accused is under 16 years of age
(b) Where the accused is a woman
(c) Where the accused is sick or infirm
(d) All of the above
17. Which of the following is not under the control of the High Court?
(a) Sessions Court
(b) Judicial Magistrate First Class
(c) Executive Magistrate
(d) Judicial Magistrate Second Class
18. The decision of an Arbitral Tribunal is called:
(a) Decree
(b) Order
(c) Award
(d) Judgment
19. The same Judge of the Court of Small Causes may preside over more than one such Court under the direction of:
(a) High Court
(b) District Court
(c) State Government
(d) Central Government
20. In the absence of the Judge of the Court of Small Causes, a plaint may be admitted, returned or rejected by:
(a) Registrar
(b) Ministerial Officer
(c) Both (A) and (B)
(d) None of the above
21. The remedy of a Curative Petition has been developed by the Supreme Court under:
(a) Article 32
(b) Article 136
(c) Article 142
(d) Article 226
22. Reservation in admissions for backward classes and economically weaker sections applies to:
(a) Government-aided private minority educational institutions
(b) Unaided private minority educational institutions
(c) Unaided private educational institutions
(d) None of the above
23. The words “Armed Rebellion” were introduced in the Constitution by the:
(a) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act
(b) 39th Constitutional Amendment Act
(c) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act
(d) 38th Constitutional Amendment Act
24. The ‘short title’ of the Constitution of India is contained in
(a) Article 1
(b) Article 370
(c) Article 373
(d) Article 393
25. A person is disqualified from being chosen as a Member of Parliament if he:
(a) Is convicted of any offence in India
(b) Is disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament
(c) Has failed to pay taxes, revenue or statutory dues to the Government
(d) None of the above
26. The power of the President of India to promulgate an Ordinance is a:
(a) Legislative power
(b) Executive power
(c) Quasi-judicial power
(d) Judicial power
27. The Supreme Court in I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007) held that a law placed in the Ninth Schedule:
(a) Can always be tested on the basis of the Basic Structure Doctrine
(b) Can be tested on the basis of the Basic Structure Doctrine if placed in the Ninth Schedule on or after 24 April 1973 (c) Can be tested only if placed after 24 July 1973
(d) Cannot be tested unless it amends the Golden Triangle
28. The Right to be Forgotten has been recognized by Justice S.K. Kaul as part of:
(a) Fundamental Right under Article 21 (b) Right to Privacy
(c) Both (A) and (B)
(d) Neither (A) nor (B)
29. The constitutional amendment limiting the total number of Ministers in the Union Council of Ministers to 15% of the Lok Sabha strength is:
(a) 81st Constitutional Amendment
(b) 89th Constitutional Amendment
(c) 91st Constitutional Amendment
(d) 96th Constitutional Amendment
30. Which of the following have been recognized as an integral part of the Right to Life under Article 21?
1. Right to Speedy Trial
2. Right to Healthy Environment
3. Right to Marry
4. Right to Go Abroad
(a) 1 & 2
(b) 2 & 4
(c) 1, 2 & 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
31. Where the Parent Act incorporates an “as if enacted” clause regarding rules framed thereunder, it:
(a) Results in exclusion of judicial review (b) Bestows additional sanctity to subordinate legislation
(c) Both (A) & (B)
(d) Neither (A) nor (B)
32. Which of the following correctly portrays the doctrine of Promissory Estoppel?
1. The doctrine was firmly established in Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1979).
2. It applies where the promisee has altered his position relying on the promise.
3. There is no estoppel against the Government in exercise of legislative functions.
4. Detriment need not necessarily be proved to invoke the doctrine against the Government.
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
33. The first attempt towards creation of the Ombudsman system in India was made through:
(a) Lokpal Bill, 1966
(b) Lokpal Bill, 1977
(c) Lokpal and Lokayuktas Bill, 1968
(d) Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
34. Where a person lawfully does work for the Government without intending it to be gratuitous, he may:
(a) Claim compensation from the Government
(b) Claim no compensation
(c) Claim restoration of benefits
(d) Compel performance under constructive contract
35. The classic case in which Conditional Legislation was first upheld as valid is:
(a) Queen v. Burah
(b) In re Delhi Laws Act
(c) King Emperor v. Benoari Lal
(d) Hamdard Dawakhana v. Union of India
36. Which of the following is NOT an instance of Procedural Ultra Vires?
(a) Laying before the Legislature
(b) Previous publication
(c) Prescribing limitation period for approaching a tribunal
(d) Consultation with affected interests
37. Legitimate Expectation forms part of:
(a) Principle of non-arbitrariness under Article 14
(b) Rule of Law
(c) Both (A) and (B)
(d) Neither (A) nor (B)
38. The jurisdiction of the High Court under Article 227 is:
(a) Supervisory in nature
(b) Over Courts, Tribunals and Administrative Bodies equally
(c) Appellate as well as Supervisory
(d) None of the above
39. An administrative action may be set aside in judicial review on the ground of:
(a) Mala fide
(b) Extraneous grounds or no grounds at all
(c) Both (A) and (B)
(d) Non-reliability of evidence
40. The principle that compensation for violation of Article 21 can be awarded as a Public Law remedy was affirmed in:
(a) Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa
(b) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
(c) Sebastian M. Hongray v. Union of India
(d) All of the above
41. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion under Article 25 are subject to:
(a) Public Order and Morality
(b) Sovereignty and Integrity
(c) Public Order, Morality, Health and other Fundamental Rights
(d) Security of State, Defamation and Incitement
42. The Supreme Court recognized reproductive autonomy of an unmarried woman under Article 21 in a judgment delivered by the Bench comprising:
(a) Hemant Gupta, Indira Banerjee & Surya Kant
(b) Indira Banerjee, Hima Kohli & Krishna Murari
(c) Sudhanshu Dhulia, Hima Kohli & M.M. Sundresh
(d) Dr. D.Y. Chandrachud, A.S. Bopanna & J.B. Pardiwala
43. The age of a Judge of the Supreme Court shall be determined by such authority as may be provided by:
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) President of India
(c) Parliament
(d) National Judicial Appointments Commission
44. Which of the following is known as the “Habeas Corpus Case”?
(a) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
(b) Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India
(c) ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla
(d) Kanu Sanyal v. District Magistrate, Darjeeling
45. Which of the following is NOT “State” under Article 12 of the Constitution?
(a) International Airport Authority
(b) LIC
(c) Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI)
(d) ONGC
46. Which Article deals with the Promotion of Co-operative Societies?
(a) Article 39A
(b) Article 43A
(c) Article 43B
(d) Article 48A
47. Which Article gives constitutional recognition to the doctrine of precedent regarding the law declared by the Supreme Court?
(a) Article 131
(b) Article 141
(c) Article 151
(d) Article 161
48. The doctrine of Res Judicata does NOT apply to which writ?
(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Certiorari
(d) Prohibition
49. The Constitution of India presently contains:
(a) 8 Schedules
(b) 9 Schedules
(c) 11 Schedules
(d) 12 Schedules
50. During the operation of a National Emergency, the term of the Lok Sabha may be extended:
(a) Six months at a time
(b) Not exceeding one year at a time
(c) Two years at a time
(d) Three years at a time
ANSWER KEY:
1-d 2-d 3-a 4-d 5-b 6-c 7-d 8-d 9-b 10-a 11-c 12-b 13-d 14-c 15-d 16-d 17-c 18-c 19-c 20-c 21-c 22-c 23-a 24-c 25-b 26-a 27-b 28-c 29-c 30-d 31-d 32-a 33-c 34-a 35-a 36-c 37-c 38-a 39-c 40-d 41-c 42-d 43-c 44-c 45-c 46-c 47-b 48-a 49-d 50-b
– Team Lawyer Talks
