1. Which of the following statements regarding the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is correct?
A. It repealed the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
B. It repealed the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
C. It repealed the Indian Penal Code, 1860.
D. It repealed the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
2. Consider the following statements:
1. BNS, 2023 recognizes Community Service as a punishment.
2. Community Service was expressly recognized as a punishment under IPC, 1860.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
3. Which one of the following is NOT a source of Fundamental Rights?
A. Part III of the Constitution
B. Judicial interpretation
C. Constitutional amendments
D. Directive Principles of State Policy
4. Consider the following statements regarding Article 14:
1. It guarantees equality before law.
2. It guarantees equal protection of laws.
Select the correct answer:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
5. Which Article of the Constitution guarantees protection of life and personal liberty?
A. Article 19
B. Article 20
C. Article 21
D. Article 22
6. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, electronic records are:
A. Inadmissible in evidence
B. Secondary evidence only
C. Recognized as documentary evidence
D. Admissible only with the consent of parties
7. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. BSA, 2023 replaced IPC, 1860.
B. BSA, 2023 replaced Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
C. BSA, 2023 replaced CrPC, 1973.
D. BSA, 2023 replaced CPC, 1908.
8. Consider the following statements:
1. The Preamble is a part of the Constitution.
2. The Preamble can be amended.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
9. Which of the following cases held that the Preamble is part of the Constitution?
A. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
B. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
D. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
10. The concept of “Rule of Law” is most closely associated with:
A. A.V. Dicey
B. Austin
C. Salmond
D. Bentham
11. Under BNSS, Zero FIR means:
A. FIR without investigation
B. FIR without jurisdiction
C. FIR registered irrespective of territorial jurisdiction
D. FIR registered only in cognizable offences
12. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 32 is itself a Fundamental Right.
2. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar called Article 32 the “Heart and Soul” of the Constitution.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
13. Which writ is issued to produce a detained person before the court?
A. Mandamus
B. Certiorari
C. Habeas Corpus
D. Quo Warranto
14. Which writ is issued against a person who unlawfully occupies a public office?
A. Habeas Corpus
B. Quo Warranto
C. Mandamus
D. Prohibition
15. Consider the following statements:
1. Every law enacted by Parliament is subject to judicial review.
2. Judicial review is part of the Basic Structure.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
16. Which Fundamental Right has been described as the “heart of Fundamental Rights”?
A. Article 14
B. Article 19
C. Article 21
D. Article 32
17. Which among the following is NOT a constitutional writ?
A. Certiorari
B. Prohibition
C. Injunction
D. Mandamus
18. The doctrine of Basic Structure was propounded in:
A. Golaknath Case
B. Kesavananda Bharati Case
C. Minerva Mills Case
D. Shankari Prasad Case
19. Consider the following statements:
1. Freedom of speech and expression is guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a).
2. The freedom is absolute.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
20. Under Article 20(1), no person shall be convicted for an act which:
A. Was not an offence when committed
B. Is punishable with death
C. Is a civil wrong
D. Is morally wrong
21. Protection against Double Jeopardy is contained in:
A. Article 19(1)(a)
B. Article 20(2)
C. Article 21
D. Article 22
22. The protection against self-incrimination is provided under:
A. Article 20(3)
B. Article 21
C. Article 22
D. Article 32
23. Which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Right?
A. Right to Equality
B. Right against Exploitation
C. Right to Property
D. Right to Freedom
24. Right to Property is a:
A. Fundamental Right
B. Constitutional Right under Article 300A
C. Natural Right only
D. Legal Right only
25. Which one of the following is a feature of the Basic Structure Doctrine?
A. Federalism
B. Judicial Review
C. Secularism
D. All of the above
26. The Constitution of India came into force on:
A. 15 August 1947
B. 26 November 1949
C. 26 January 1950
D. 24 January 1950
27. The Constitution was adopted on:
A. 15 August 1947
B. 26 November 1949
C. 26 January 1950
D. 24 January 1950
28. Which Article abolishes untouchability?
A. Article 15
B. Article 16
C. Article 17
D. Article 18
29. Abolition of titles is provided under:
A. Article 16
B. Article 17
C. Article 18
D. Article 19
30. Which Article guarantees freedom of religion?
A. Articles 25–28
B. Articles 19–22
C. Articles 29–30
D. Articles 32–35
31. Which Article provides constitutional remedies?
A. Article 19
B. Article 21
C. Article 32
D. Article 226
32. The power of the High Court to issue writs is conferred by:
A. Article 32
B. Article 136
C. Article 226
D. Article 227
33. Which of the following is a Directive Principle of State Policy?
A. Equal pay for equal work
B. Freedom of speech
C. Freedom of religion
D. Right against exploitation
34. Consider the following statements:
1. Directive Principles are enforceable by courts.
2. They are fundamental in the governance of the country.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
35. Fundamental Duties were added by:
A. 24th Amendment
B. 42nd Amendment
C. 44th Amendment
D. 52nd Amendment
36. At present, the Constitution contains how many Fundamental Duties?
A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 13
37. Which Constitutional Amendment inserted Article 21A?
A. 42nd Amendment
B. 44th Amendment
C. 86th Amendment
D. 91st Amendment
38. Article 21A relates to:
A. Right to Information
B. Right to Education
C. Right to Privacy
D. Right to Livelihood
39. Which case recognized the Right to Privacy as a Fundamental Right?
A. Maneka Gandhi Case
B. Puttaswamy Case
C. Golaknath Case
D. Minerva Mills Case
40. Which case expanded Article 21 through the concept of “procedure established by law” being just, fair and reasonable?
A. A.K. Gopalan
B. Maneka Gandhi
C. Kesavananda Bharati
D. Shreya Singhal
41. Under BSA, electronic evidence includes:
A. E-mails
B. Digital records
C. Server logs
D. All of the above
42. Which of the following is a constitutional body?
A. Election Commission of India
B. NITI Aayog
C. CBI
D. NHRC
43. The Election Commission is established under:
A. Article 280
B. Article 324
C. Article 356
D. Article 368
44. The Constitution describes India as:
A. Federation of States
B. Union of States
C. Confederation of States
D. Republic of Provinces
45. Which Article empowers Parliament to amend the Constitution?
A. Article 352
B. Article 356
C. Article 368
D. Article 370
46. Consider the following statements:
1. Federalism is part of the Basic Structure.
2. Democracy is part of the Basic Structure.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
47. The Advocate General is appointed by:
A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Governor
D. Chief Justice
48. The Attorney General for India is appointed by:
A. Prime Minister
B. President
C. Chief Justice of India
D. Parliament
49. Which among the following is NOT a feature of the Indian Constitution?
A. Parliamentary Government
B. Judicial Review
C. Presidential Form of Government
D. Federal Structure with Unitary Bias
50. The Constitution of India is:
A. Completely Rigid
B. Completely Flexible
C. Partly Rigid and Partly Flexible
D. Neither Rigid nor Flexible
ANSWER KEY:
1-C 2-A 3-D 4-C 5-C 6-C 7-B 8-C 9-B 10-A 11-C 12-C 13-C 14-B 15-C 16-D 17-C 18-B 19-A 20-A 21-B 22-A 23-C 24-B 25-D 26-C 27-B 28-C 29-C 30-A 31-C 32-C 33-A 34-B 35-B 36-B 37-C 38-B 39-B 40-B 41-D 42-A 43-B 44-B 45-C 46-C 47-C 48-B 49-C 50-C
– Team Lawyer Talks
