Bihar Judiciary Exam 2026 | 50 Important Law MCQs

1. Under Hanafi Muslim Law, the mother is entitled to the custody of a minor male child until he attains the age of:
(a) 5 years
(b) 6 years
(c) 7 years
(d) 8 years

2. Section 116 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 applies to:
(a) Valid marriage
(b) Irregular marriage
(c) Void marriage
(d) None of the above

3. A gift made to a non-Muslim under Muslim Law is:
(a) Valid
(b) Irregular
(c) Voidable
(d) Void

4. The Sunni sect is divided into how many schools?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

5. A gift to a minor is valid if possession is delivered to:
(a) Father
(b) Mother
(c) Brother
(d) Sister

6. Which of the following is not a modern source of Hindu Law?
(a) Precedent
(b) Legislation
(c) Dharmashastra
(d) Justice, Equity and Good Conscience

7. A valid endowment must:
(a) Be complete
(b) Be specific
(c) Be definite
(d) All of the above

8. Brij Narain v. Mangla Prasad is related to:
(a) Debts
(b) Gift
(c) Partition
(d) Stridhan

9. How many Shastric ceremonies are there in a Hindu Marriage?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8

10. The mother has the capacity to give a child in adoption if the father:
(a) Is dead
(b) Has ceased to be a Hindu
(c) Has finally and completely renounced the world
(d) Any of the above

11. According to the Dayabhaga School, all heritage is:
(a) Unobstructed
(b) Obstructed
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) All of the above

12. A decree or order of separate residence and maintenance can be obtained under Section 18 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 and:
(a) Section 143 BNSS
(b) Section 144 BNSS
(c) Section 145 BNSS
(d) Section 146 BNSS

13. In Vineeta Sharma v. Rakesh Sharma (2020), the Supreme Court held that for a daughter to acquire coparcenary rights:
(a) Father must be alive on the date of amendment
(b) Father must be alive on the date of her birth
(c) Father must be alive on the date of her marriage
(d) None of the above

14. Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 authorizes a Hindu to dispose of by will:
(a) Self-acquired property
(b) Undivided Mitakshara coparcenary interest
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Only (a)

15. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that a Hindu widow, by virtue of Section 14(1) of the Hindu Succession Act, acquires absolute ownership of property given in lieu of maintenance?
(a) Munni Devi Alias Nathi Devi v. Rajendra Alias Lallu Lal
(b) Prakash v. Phulavati
(c) Danamma v. Amar
(d) None of the above

16. The Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act came into force on:
(a) 7 October 1937
(b) 1 October 1937
(c) 7 October 1949
(d) 10 July 1937

17. Identify the odd one out:
(a) Shafi
(b) Shia
(c) Hanafi
(d) Maliki

18. A gift by Hiba-bil-Iwaz:
(a) Can be revoked before delivery of possession
(b) Can be revoked after delivery of possession but before iwaz
(c) Can be revoked even after iwaz
(d) Cannot be revoked under any circumstances

19. The role of a Mutawalli under Muslim Law is:
(a) To collect charity funds
(b) To manage waqf properties
(c) To conduct religious ceremonies
(d) To teach Islamic law

20. Where there is a conflict between Personal Law and the Guardians and Wards Act, 1890, the latter prevails. This was held in:
(a) Nasra Begum v. Rijwan Ali
(b) Hakim Masihuddin v. Abdul Wahid
(c) Poolakkal Ayisakutty v. Parat Abdul Samad
(d) Fathima Bushra v. State of Karnataka

21. “During the course of employment” is an essential element of:
(a) Strict liability
(b) Absolute liability
(c) Vicarious liability
(d) No-fault liability

22. Walker v. Great Northern Railway is a case relating to:
(a) Injury due to plaintiff’s fault
(b) Contributory negligence
(c) Pre-natal injuries
(d) Inevitable accident

23. In an action for malicious prosecution, the law protects:
(a) Interest in person
(b) Interest in property
(c) Interest in reputation
(d) All of the above

24. Which Chapter of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 contains provisions relating to Quasi-Contracts?
(a) Chapter IV
(b) Chapter V
(c) Chapter VI
(d) Chapter VII

25. A agrees to sell to B one hundred tons of oil. This agreement is:
(a) Valid
(b) Voidable
(c) Void
(d) Illegal

26. Who was the Judge in the famous case of Hadley v. Baxendale?
(a) Edward Alderson
(b) Haldane
(c) Peters Anderson
(d) Lord Denning

27. Who is the author of the book The Province of the Law of Tort?
(a) Winfield
(b) Lindsell
(c) Salmond
(d) Walton

28. The maxim Damnum Fatale relates to:
(a) Fatal injury
(b) Act of God
(c) Inevitable accident
(d) Injury by fault

29. Which of the following is a remedy for nuisance?
(a) Abatement
(b) Damages
(c) Injunction
(d) All of the above

30. Which of the following is a leading case on the Doctrine of Impossibility?
(a) Taylor v. Caldwell
(b) Matthews v. Baxter
(c) Edwards v. Carter
(d) Burnard v. Haggis

31. The nature of damages in contracts is:
(a) Liquidated
(b) Unliquidated
(c) Dependent upon court discretion
(d) Dependent upon facts of the case

32. Which among the following is essential for a wagering agreement?
(a) Uncertain event
(b) Mutual chances of gain or loss
(c) No control over the event by parties
(d) All of the above

33. Which Section of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 declares agreements in restraint of trade void?
(a) Section 24
(b) Section 26
(c) Section 27
(d) Section 29

34. Which Judge is associated with Donoghue v. Stevenson?
(a) Lord Atkin
(b) Lord Coke
(c) Lord Denning
(d) Lord Atkinson

35. No-fault liability is applicable in:
(a) Contributory negligence
(b) Motor accident claims
(c) Cases where plaintiff is at fault
(d) Res ipsa loquitur

36. If a newspaper publishes a defamatory article written by Mr. X, who can be sued?
(a) Publisher only
(b) Printer only
(c) Mr. X only
(d) Mr. X, Printer, Publisher and Editor

37. Which of the following wrongs are not torts?
(a) Social wrongs
(b) Moral wrongs
(c) Religious wrongs
(d) All of the above

38. For vicarious liability, a servant is a person:
(a) Whose work and manner of work are controlled by the master
(b) Whose work alone is controlled by the master
(c) Who can be hired and fired by the master
(d) Both (a) and (c)

39. Injuria Sine Damnum means:
(a) Legal injury without actual damage
(b) Damage without legal injury
(c) No injury
(d) All of the above

40. The decision in Ashby v. White supports:
(a) Salmond’s Theory
(b) Winfield’s Theory
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

41. An action for defamation can be brought by:
(a) An individual
(b) A partnership firm
(c) A company
(d) Both (a) and (c)

42. Can a person lawfully shoot his neighbour’s tamed pigeon if it is damaging his crops?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Depends on circumstances
(d) None of the above

43. Inevitable accident means:
(a) An Act of God
(b) An unexpected injury that could not be foreseen and avoided
(c) An unexpected injury that could have been foreseen and avoided
(d) Both (a) and (b)

44. No-fault liability means:
(a) Liability for damage caused through negligence
(b) Liability for damage caused through fault
(c) Liability even without negligence or fault
(d) Freedom from liability

45. Tort is a violation of:
(a) A right in personam
(b) A right in rem
(c) Both rights in personam and in rem
(d) Neither

46. Ram saw two horses running loose and causing traffic obstruction. While trying to stop them, he was injured. Can he claim damages from the owner?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Maybe
(d) None of the above

47. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) An agreement enforceable by law is a contract [Section 2(a)]
(b) All agreements are contracts [Section 10]
(c) A proposal when accepted becomes a promise [Section 2(b)]
(d) Every promise and every set of promises forming consideration for each other is an agreement [Section 2(e)]

48. Every promise and every set of promises forming consideration for each other is:
(a) Contract
(b) Agreement
(c) Offer
(d) Acceptance

49. An agreement, the meaning of which is uncertain, is:
(a) Void
(b) Valid
(c) Voidable
(d) Illegal

50. An offer is revoked by:
(a) Death or insanity of the proposer
(b) Lapse of time
(c) Communication of notice of revocation
(d) All of the above

ANSWER KEY:

1-C 2-A 3-A 4-D 5-A 6-C 7-D 8-A 9-D 10-D 11-B 12-B 13-D 14-C 15-A 16-A 17-B 18-D 19-B 20-C 21-C 22-C 23-D 24-B 25-C 26-A 27-A 28-C 29-D 30-A 31-A 32-D 33-C 34-A 35-B 36-D 37-D 38-D 39-A 40-B 41-D 42-A 43-B 44-C 45-B 46-A 47-A 48-B 49-A 50-D

– Team Lawyer Talks

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