Advanced Legal MCQs of 50 Questions – CLAT, LLM & Judiciary Level Challenge

Designed for serious aspirants, this high-difficulty set of 50 MCQs covers Constitutional Law, IPC, CrPC, CPC, Evidence, Jurisprudence, and Legal Reasoning at CLAT, LLM, and Judiciary exam level. Expect tricky concepts, landmark cases, legal maxims, and analytical questions to truly test your preparation.


  1. Which case propounded the doctrine of basic structure?
    A. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
    B. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
    C. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
    D. I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu
    Answer: B
  2. True or False: The Parliament can amend Fundamental Rights without any limitation.
    Answer: False
  3. “Lex specialis derogat legi generali” means:
    A. General law prevails
    B. Special law overrides general law
    C. Equity prevails
    D. Penal law prevails
    Answer: B
  4. In which case was the “procedure established by law” expanded to include due process?
    A. A.K. Gopalan
    B. Maneka Gandhi
    C. ADM Jabalpur
    D. Puttaswamy
    Answer: B
  5. Which Article embodies the principle of reasonable classification?
    A. Article 14
    B. Article 19
    C. Article 21
    D. Article 32
    Answer: A
  6. Under IPC, culpable homicide is defined in:
    A. Section 299
    B. Section 300
    C. Section 302
    D. Section 304
    Answer: A
  7. True or False: Every culpable homicide amounts to murder.
    Answer: False
  8. “Actus curiae neminem gravabit” means:
    A. Act of court shall prejudice no one
    B. Act of God prevails
    C. Act is supreme
    D. Court is final
    Answer: A
  9. Grave and sudden provocation is an exception under:
    A. Section 299
    B. Section 300
    C. Section 302
    D. Section 304A
    Answer: B
  10. Common object is defined under:
    A. Section 34 IPC
    B. Section 120B IPC
    C. Section 149 IPC
    D. Section 141 IPC
    Answer: D
  11. FIR is not an encyclopedia of facts — this principle was laid down in:
    A. State of Haryana v. Bhajan Lal
    B. Lalita Kumari v. Govt. of UP
    C. T.T. Antony v. State of Kerala
    D. Joginder Kumar v. State of UP
    Answer: B
  12. True or False: Preliminary inquiry is mandatory before registration of FIR in all cases.
    Answer: False
  13. “Nemo dat quod non habet” means:
    A. No one gives what he does not have
    B. Law is supreme
    C. Possession is ownership
    D. Ignorance is no excuse
    Answer: A
  14. Res sub judice is contained in:
    A. Section 10 CPC
    B. Section 11 CPC
    C. Section 9 CPC
    D. Section 12 CPC
    Answer: A
  15. Doctrine of res judicata applies to:
    A. Criminal cases only
    B. Civil cases only
    C. Both civil and criminal
    D. Administrative cases
    Answer: C
  16. True or False: Foreign judgments are conclusive under all circumstances.
    Answer: False
  17. Which section defines “proved” in Evidence Act?
    A. Section 3
    B. Section 5
    C. Section 24
    D. Section 101
    Answer: A
  18. Dying declaration is an exception to:
    A. Best evidence rule
    B. Hearsay rule
    C. Oral evidence rule
    D. Documentary rule
    Answer: B
  19. “Res ipsa loquitur” is applied in:
    A. Contract
    B. Tort
    C. Crime
    D. Evidence
    Answer: B
  20. True or False: Burden of proof never shifts.
    Answer: False
  21. Which case recognized Right to Privacy as fundamental right?
    A. Maneka Gandhi
    B. Kharak Singh
    C. Puttaswamy
    D. Golaknath
    Answer: C
  22. Doctrine of eclipse applies to:
    A. Pre-constitutional laws
    B. Post-constitutional laws
    C. Both
    D. None
    Answer: A
  23. “Audi alteram partem” is a principle of:
    A. Equity
    B. Natural justice
    C. Criminal law
    D. Tort
    Answer: B
  24. True or False: Administrative actions are not subject to judicial review.
    Answer: False
  25. Section 438 CrPC deals with:
    A. Bail
    B. Anticipatory bail
    C. Regular bail
    D. Interim bail
    Answer: B
  26. Which maxim applies to consent in tort?
    A. Volenti non fit injuria
    B. Actus reus
    C. Mens rea
    D. Res judicata
    Answer: A
  27. Consideration under Contract Act must be:
    A. Adequate
    B. Lawful
    C. Written
    D. Express
    Answer: B
  28. True or False: Agreement without consideration is void, subject to exceptions.
    Answer: True
  29. Which case deals with basic structure and judicial review of 9th Schedule?
    A. Minerva Mills
    B. I.R. Coelho
    C. Golaknath
    D. Waman Rao
    Answer: B
  30. “Delegatus non potest delegare” means:
    A. Delegate cannot further delegate
    B. Law is strict
    C. Authority is final
    D. Justice is supreme
    Answer: A
  31. Charge is framed under CrPC by:
    A. Police
    B. Magistrate/Judge
    C. Accused
    D. Prosecutor
    Answer: B
  32. True or False: Double jeopardy is enshrined under Article 20(2).
    Answer: True
  33. Doctrine of severability applies when:
    A. Entire law is void
    B. Part of law is unconstitutional
    C. Law is valid
    D. Law repealed
    Answer: B
  34. Section 114 Evidence Act deals with:
    A. Admissions
    B. Presumptions
    C. Confessions
    D. Estoppel
    Answer: B
  35. “Falsus in uno, falsus in omnibus” means:
    A. False in one thing, false in everything
    B. Truth prevails
    C. Law is blind
    D. Evidence is final
    Answer: A
  36. True or False: Indian courts strictly follow “falsus in uno”.
    Answer: False
  37. Mens rea is not required in:
    A. Murder
    B. Theft
    C. Strict liability offences
    D. Cheating
    Answer: C
  38. Absolute liability was evolved in:
    A. Rylands v. Fletcher
    B. MC Mehta v. Union of India
    C. Donoghue v. Stevenson
    D. Keshavananda Bharati
    Answer: B
  39. “Salus populi suprema lex” means:
    A. Welfare of people is supreme law
    B. Justice is supreme
    C. Law is harsh
    D. Truth prevails
    Answer: A
  40. True or False: Promissory estoppel can be used against government.
    Answer: True
  41. Section 300 Exception 1 relates to:
    A. Private defence
    B. Provocation
    C. Mistake
    D. Accident
    Answer: B
  42. Burden of proof in criminal cases lies on:
    A. Accused
    B. Prosecution
    C. Judge
    D. Police
    Answer: B
  43. “Injuria sine damno” means:
    A. Damage without injury
    B. Injury without damage
    C. Both
    D. None
    Answer: B
  44. True or False: Possession is prima facie evidence of ownership.
    Answer: True
  45. Which Article deals with constitutional remedies?
    A. 19
    B. 21
    C. 32
    D. 226
    Answer: C
  46. Doctrine of pith and substance is used in:
    A. Criminal law
    B. Constitutional law
    C. Contract law
    D. Tort law
    Answer: B
  47. “Ubi jus ibi remedium” applies to:
    A. Criminal law
    B. Civil rights
    C. Evidence
    D. Procedure
    Answer: B
  48. True or False: CPC is retrospective in operation.
    Answer: Generally True (procedural law)
  49. Section 165 Evidence Act empowers:
    A. Police
    B. Judge
    C. Lawyer
    D. Witness
    Answer: B
  50. Constitution was adopted on:
    A. 26 January 1950
    B. 26 November 1949
    C. 15 August 1947
    D. 2 October 1950
    Answer: B

– Team Lawyer Talks

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