Strengthen your AIBE preparation with this advanced mixed-format MCQ set specially designed for serious law graduates and aspiring advocates. Covering Professional Ethics, IPC, CrPC, CPC, Evidence, Constitution, Contract, Tort, and practical legal application through analytical, statement-based, true/false, legal maxim, and case-oriented questions.
1. An advocate enrolled with a State Bar Council can practice:
A. Only within that State
B. Only in High Courts
C. Throughout India
D. Only in subordinate courts
Answer: C
2. True or False: Contingency fee agreements are generally prohibited for advocates in India.
Answer: True
3. “Ubi jus ibi remedium” means:
A. Facts speak for themselves
B. Where there is a right, there is a remedy
C. Equity follows law
D. Ignorance of law excuses none
Answer: B
4. Professional misconduct by an advocate is primarily dealt with by:
A. District Court
B. Supreme Court only
C. Bar Council Disciplinary Committee
D. Parliament
Answer: C
5. Assertion: Advocates are officers of the court.
Reason: Advocates owe a duty toward administration of justice.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
6. Res judicata is governed under:
A. Section 9 CPC
B. Section 10 CPC
C. Section 11 CPC
D. Section 151 CPC
Answer: C
7. True or False: CPC is procedural law.
Answer: True
8. Caveat is filed under:
A. Section 80 CPC
B. Section 148A CPC
C. Section 151 CPC
D. Section 144 CPC
Answer: B
9. Appeal is considered a:
A. Natural right
B. Human right
C. Statutory right
D. Constitutional guarantee
Answer: C
10. Res sub judice is contained under:
A. Section 9 CPC
B. Section 10 CPC
C. Section 11 CPC
D. Section 115 CPC
Answer: B
11. FIR is registered under:
A. Section 154 CrPC
B. Section 156 CrPC
C. Section 161 CrPC
D. Section 173 CrPC
Answer: A
12. True or False: FIR is substantive evidence.
Answer: False
13. Anticipatory bail is granted under:
A. Section 436 CrPC
B. Section 437 CrPC
C. Section 438 CrPC
D. Section 439 CrPC
Answer: C
14. Cognizance means:
A. Conviction
B. Judicial application of mind to offence
C. Investigation
D. Framing of charge
Answer: B
15. Assertion: Bail is rule and jail is exception.
Reason: Presumption of innocence exists until conviction.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
16. Dying declaration is relevant under:
A. Section 24 Evidence Act
B. Section 32 Evidence Act
C. Section 45 Evidence Act
D. Section 65 Evidence Act
Answer: B
17. True or False: Hearsay evidence is generally inadmissible.
Answer: True
18. “Res gestae” is embodied under:
A. Section 5 Evidence Act
B. Section 6 Evidence Act
C. Section 24 Evidence Act
D. Section 114 Evidence Act
Answer: B
19. Expert opinion becomes relevant under:
A. Section 32 Evidence Act
B. Section 45 Evidence Act
C. Section 73 Evidence Act
D. Section 115 Evidence Act
Answer: B
20. Accomplice evidence is:
A. Inadmissible
B. Substantive evidence
C. Secondary evidence
D. Illegal evidence
Answer: B
21. Theft is defined under:
A. Section 378 IPC
B. Section 390 IPC
C. Section 405 IPC
D. Section 415 IPC
Answer: A
22. True or False: Every murder is culpable homicide.
Answer: True
23. “Mens rea” generally means:
A. Guilty act
B. Guilty intention
C. Legal injury
D. Negligence
Answer: B
24. Common intention is embodied under:
A. Section 34 IPC
B. Section 149 IPC
C. Section 120A IPC
D. Section 511 IPC
Answer: A
25. A and B jointly attack C after prior planning. Liability of B mainly arises through:
A. Section 149 IPC
B. Section 34 IPC
C. Section 120B IPC only
D. Section 511 IPC
Answer: B
26. Assertion: Criminal conspiracy is complete upon agreement.
Reason: Actual commission of offence is unnecessary in many cases.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
27. True or False: Mistake of law is valid defence under IPC.
Answer: False
28. Criminal breach of trust requires:
A. Entrustment of property
B. Mere possession only
C. Negligence alone
D. Civil liability only
Answer: A
29. Consideration under Indian Contract Act may move from:
A. Promisee only
B. Promisor only
C. Third party
D. Court only
Answer: C
30. Minor’s agreement is:
A. Voidable
B. Illegal
C. Void ab initio
D. Enforceable
Answer: C
31. Assertion: Every agreement is not enforceable by law.
Reason: Only agreements fulfilling essentials of valid contract become contracts.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
32. “Consensus ad idem” means:
A. Compensation
B. Meeting of minds
C. Legal injury
D. Strict liability
Answer: B
33. True or False: Every breach of contract amounts to cheating.
Answer: False
34. “Volenti non fit injuria” is defence in:
A. Contract
B. Tort
C. Crime
D. Evidence
Answer: B
35. Rylands v. Fletcher established doctrine of:
A. Negligence
B. Absolute liability
C. Strict liability
D. Constitutional tort
Answer: C
36. MC Mehta case evolved principle of:
A. Strict liability
B. Absolute liability
C. Vicarious liability
D. Remoteness of damages
Answer: B
37. Assertion: Negligence requires duty of care.
Reason: Mere accident automatically creates tortious liability.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: C
38. “Injuria sine damno” means:
A. Damage without legal injury
B. Legal injury without actual damage
C. Tort without fault
D. Wrong without remedy
Answer: B
39. Article 14 guarantees:
A. Freedom of religion
B. Equality before law
C. Freedom of speech
D. Cultural rights
Answer: B
40. True or False: Judicial review forms part of basic structure doctrine.
Answer: True
41. Doctrine of eclipse applies to:
A. Constitutional amendments only
B. Pre-constitutional laws violating Fundamental Rights
C. Emergency legislation only
D. Tax statutes only
Answer: B
42. “Audi alteram partem” means:
A. No one should judge own cause
B. Hear the other side
C. Facts speak for themselves
D. Equity follows law
Answer: B
43. Assertion: Article 32 itself is a Fundamental Right.
Reason: Dr. Ambedkar called it heart and soul of Constitution.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
44. Lok Adalat award is:
A. Advisory only
B. Binding on parties
C. Temporary order
D. Automatically appealable
Answer: B
45. “Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea” means:
A. Guilty act alone sufficient
B. Guilty act with guilty mind constitutes offence
C. Facts speak for themselves
D. Equity follows law
Answer: B
46. True or False: Standard of proof in civil cases is beyond reasonable doubt.
Answer: False
47. Standard of proof in criminal cases is:
A. Preponderance of probabilities
B. Beyond reasonable doubt
C. Suspicion
D. Prima facie satisfaction
Answer: B
48. A witness intentionally giving false evidence commits:
A. Sedition
B. Perjury
C. Defamation
D. Criminal intimidation
Answer: B
49. Assertion: Ignorance of law is no excuse.
Reason: Everyone is presumed to know law.
A. Both correct and Reason explains Assertion
B. Both correct but Reason not explanation
C. Assertion true, Reason false
D. Assertion false, Reason true
Answer: A
50. “Nemo judex in causa sua” primarily relates to:
A. Burden of proof
B. Rule against bias
C. Strict liability
D. Estoppel
Answer: B
– Team Lawyer Talks