Practice 50 high-quality APO questions designed to test conceptual clarity, procedural law, criminal law, and analytical legal reasoning.
1. A law inconsistent with Fundamental Rights is:
A. Void ab initio
B. Void only to extent of inconsistency
C. Valid until struck down
D. Illegal but enforceable
Ans: B
2. Doctrine of Eclipse applies to:
A. Pre-constitutional laws
B. Post-constitutional laws
C. Both
D. None
Ans: A
3. Preventive detention maximum without advisory board:
A. 1 month
B. 2 months
C. 3 months
D. 6 months
Ans: C
4. “State” under Article 12 includes:
A. Private companies
B. NGOs always
C. Authorities under govt control
D. Only legislature
Ans: C
5. Which writ lies against private person?
A. Habeas Corpus
B. Mandamus
C. Certiorari
D. Prohibition
Ans: A
6. Culpable homicide becomes murder when:
A. Intention present
B. Knowledge present
C. Falls under Sec 300 clauses
D. Death occurs
Ans: C
7. Grave and sudden provocation reduces offence to:
A. No offence
B. Hurt
C. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
D. Attempt
Ans: C
8. Common intention requires:
A. Prior meeting of minds
B. Same intention at spot
C. Participation only
D. Presence only
Ans: A
9. “Preparation” is punishable in:
A. All offences
B. No offences
C. Few offences like dacoity
D. Only attempt
Ans: C
10. Criminal conspiracy is complete when:
A. Agreement made
B. Act done
C. Attempt begins
D. Injury caused
Ans: A
11. Cognizance is taken by:
A. Police
B. Magistrate
C. Sessions Court only
D. Victim
Ans: B
12. Police remand maximum under Sec 167 CrPC:
A. 7 days
B. 10 days
C. 15 days
D. 30 days
Ans: C
13. Charge-sheet must be filed within.
A. 30 days
B. 60/90 days
C. 120 days
D. No limit
Ans: B
14. Compounding without permission:
A. Always allowed
B. Not allowed
C. Allowed in certain offences
D. Only by court
Ans: C
15. Sessions Court takes cognizance:
A. Directly
B. Only after committal
C. Through FIR
D. Never
Ans: B
16. Admission is:
A. Conclusive proof
B. Relevant but not conclusive
C. Irrelevant
D. Secondary evidence
Ans: B
17. Confession causing discovery is:
A. Fully admissible
B. Partly admissible
C. Not admissible
D. Secondary evidence
Ans: B
18. Hostile witness:
A. Cannot be cross-examined
B. Can be cross-examined by own party
C. Always rejected
D. Not allowed
Ans: B
19. Burden shifts under:
A. Sec 101
B. Sec 102
C. Sec 106
D. Sec 114
Ans: C
20. Opinion of expert is:
A. Conclusive
B. Irrelevant
C. Advisory
D. Binding
Ans: C
21. Res sub judice prevents:
A. Multiple suits
B. Parallel trial
C. Appeals
D. Execution
Ans: B
22. Review is filed before:
A. Appellate court
B. Same court
C. Supreme Court
D. High Court only
Ans: B
23. Order 7 Rule 11 deals with:
A. Injunction
B. Rejection of plaint
C. Summons
D. Decree
Ans: B
24. Ex parte decree can be set aside under:
A. Order 9 Rule 13
B. Order 7 Rule 11
C. Sec 96
D. Sec 100
Ans: A
25. Inherent powers under CPC:
A. Sec 9
B. Sec 10
C. Sec 151
D. Sec 96
Ans: C
26. Free consent excludes:
A. Fraud
B. Mistake
C. Coercion
D. All
Ans: D
27. Mistake of law:
A. Valid
B. Voidable
C. Void
D. Enforceable
Ans: A
28. Vicarious liability arises in:
A. Contract
B. Tort
C. Crime
D. Evidence
Ans: B
29. Defamation requires:
A. Publication
B. Damage
C. Intent
D. All
Ans: D
30. Negligence includes:
A. Duty
B. Breach
C. Damage
D. All
Ans: D
31. Advocate can advertise:
A. Freely
B. Limited info only
C. Never
D. Only online
Ans: B
32. Contempt includes:
A. Civil only
B. Criminal only
C. Both
D. None
Ans: C
33. PIL can be dismissed if:
A. Public interest absent
B. Filed late
C. Against govt
D. Always allowed
Ans: A
34. Natural justice includes:
A. Bias rule
B. Hearing rule
C. Both
D. None
Ans: C
35. Delegated legislation controlled by:
A. Judiciary
B. Legislature
C. Both
D. None
Ans: C
36. FIR after delay:
A. Invalid
B. Always rejected
C. Valid with explanation
D. Illegal
Ans: C
37. Double jeopardy applies when:
A. Same offence twice
B. Same act
C. Same trial
D. Same FIR
Ans: A
38. Dying declaration needs:
A. Doctor certification
B. Magistrate
C. No fixed rule
D. Always written
Ans: C
39. Bail in bailable offence:
A. Discretion
B. Right
C. Prohibited
D. Conditional
Ans: B
40. Leading question disallowed in:
A. Cross
B. Chief
C. Both
D. None
Ans: B
41. Ratio decidendi means:
A. Obiter
B. Reason for decision
C. Judgment
D. Order
Ans: B
42. Obiter dicta is:
A. Binding
B. Not binding
C. Law
D. Statute
Ans: B
43. Stare decisis ensures:
A. Flexibility
B. Certainty
C. Delay
D. Appeal
Ans: B
44. Judicial review power lies with:
A. Executive
B. Judiciary
C. Legislature
D. Police
Ans: B
45. Burden of proof in criminal cases:
A. Accused
B. Prosecution
C. Court
D. Witness
Ans: B
46. Attempt begins when:
A. Preparation ends
B. Intention forms
C. Crime completes
D. FIR filed
Ans: A
47. Evidence Act applies to:
A. Affidavits
B. Court proceedings
C. Arbitration
D. All
Ans: B
48. Injunction granted under:
A. CrPC
B. CPC
C. IPC
D. Evidence
Ans: B
49. Limitation Act bars:
A. Right
B. Remedy
C. Evidence
D. Crime
Ans: B
50. Cause of action means:
A. Right to sue
B. Evidence
C. Judgment
D. Decree
Ans: A
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