Judiciary Exam Preparation | 50 High-Yield Law MCQs

1. Consider the following statements regarding the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023:

  1. It repealed the Indian Penal Code, 1860.
  2. It came into force on 1 July 2024.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    A. 1 only
    B. 2 only
    C. Both 1 and 2
    D. Neither 1 nor 2

2. Which one of the following correctly matches the new criminal laws with the enactments they replaced?
A. IPC – BNSS; CrPC – BNS; Evidence Act – BSA
B. IPC – BNS; CrPC – BNSS; Evidence Act – BSA
C. IPC – BSA; CrPC – BNSS; Evidence Act – BNS
D. IPC – BNSS; CrPC – BSA; Evidence Act – BNS

3. Consider the following statements:

  1. Community Service is recognized as a punishment under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
  2. Community Service was expressly recognized as a punishment under the Indian Penal Code, 1860.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    A. 1 only
    B. 2 only
    C. Both 1 and 2
    D. Neither 1 nor 2

4. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, electronic records are:
A. Inadmissible in criminal proceedings.
B. Recognized as documentary evidence subject to the provisions of law.
C. Treated only as oral evidence.
D. Admissible only in civil proceedings.

5. Consider the following statements:

  1. Article 14 guarantees equality before law.
  2. Article 14 also guarantees equal protection of the laws.
    Which of the following is correct?
    A. 1 only
    B. 2 only
    C. Both 1 and 2
    D. Neither 1 nor 2

6. Which one of the following Articles guarantees protection against ex post facto criminal laws?
A. Article 19
B. Article 20(1)
C. Article 21
D. Article 22

7. The doctrine of Basic Structure was propounded by the Supreme Court in:
A. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
B. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
C. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
D. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras

8. “An FIR relating to a cognizable offence may be registered at any police station irrespective of territorial jurisdiction and thereafter transferred to the competent police station
A. Only by the police station having territorial jurisdiction.
B. Only upon the direction of a Magistrate.
C. At any police station irrespective of territorial jurisdiction.
D. Only in non-cognizable offences.

9. Which one of the following writs is issued to secure the release of a person unlawfully detained?
A. Mandamus
B. Certiorari
C. Habeas Corpus
D. Quo Warranto

10. Consider the following statements:

  1. Judicial Review forms part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution.
  2. Parliament cannot destroy the Basic Structure while exercising its amending power.
    Which of the following is correct?
    A. 1 only
    B. 2 only
    C. Both 1 and 2
    D. Neither 1 nor 2

11. Consider the following statements regarding Article 32 of the Constitution

  1. Article 32 is itself a Fundamental Right.
  2. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described Article 32 as the “Heart and Soul of the Constitution.”
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    A. 1 only
    B. 2 only
    C. Both 1 and 2
    D. Neither 1 nor 2

12. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which of the following statements is correct?
A. Oral evidence always prevails over documentary evidence.
B. Electronic records are excluded from documentary evidence.
C. Electronic records are recognized as documentary evidence subject to the provisions of law.
D. Documentary evidence is inadmissible in criminal proceedings.

13. Which one of the following correctly describes a cognizable offence under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?
A. Police cannot arrest without a warrant
B. Police may arrest without a warrant in accordance with law.
C. Investigation requires prior permission of the State Government.
D. A Magistrate alone can investigate the offence.

14. Consider the following statements:

  1. Article 20(2) embodies the rule against double jeopardy.
  2. Article 20(3) protects an accused against self-incrimination.
    Which of the following is correct?
    A. 1 only
    B. 2 only
    C. Both 1 and 2
    D. Neither 1 nor 2

15. Which of the following writs is issued to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction?
A. Habeas Corpus
B. Mandamus
C. Prohibition
D. Quo Warranto

16. Consider the following statements:

  1. Every person is presumed innocent unless proved guilty.
  2. The burden of proving guilt in a criminal trial ordinarily lies on the prosecution.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    A. 1 only
    B. 2 only
    C. Both 1 and 2
    D. Neither 1 nor 2

17. Under the Constitution of India, abolition of untouchability is provided under:
A. Article 15
B. Article 16
C. Article 17
D. Article 18

18. Which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Right?
A. Right against Exploitation
B. Right to Freedom
C. Right to Property
D. Right to Constitutional Remedies

19. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments inserted the Fundamental Duties into the Constitution?
A. 24th Amendment
B. 42nd Amendment
C. 44th Amendment
D. 86th Amendment

20. Consider the following statements regarding the Basic Structure Doctrine:

  1. Judicial Review is a part of the Basic Structure.
  2. Federalism is a part of the Basic Structure.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    A. 1 only
    B. 2 only
    C. Both 1 and 2
    D. Neither 1 nor 2

21. Consider the following statements regarding Article 21 of the Constitution:

  1. No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.
  2. The expression “procedure established by law” has been judicially interpreted to mean a procedure that is just, fair and reasonable.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    A. 1 only
    B. 2 only
    C. Both 1 and 2
    D. Neither 1 nor 2

22. Which one of the following landmark decisions expanded the scope of Article 21 by holding that the procedure must be “just, fair and reasonable”?
A. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
B. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
C. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
D. Golaknath v. State of Punjab

23. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, oral evidence must, in general, be:
A. Direct
B. Hearsay
C. Documentary
D. Secondary

24. Consider the following statements:

  1. Hearsay evidence is generally inadmissible.
  2. The law recognizes certain well-established exceptions to the hearsay rule.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    A. 1 only
    B. 2 only
    C. Both 1 and 2
    D. Neither 1 nor 2

25. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a police officer investigating a cognizable offence generally derives the power to investigate:
A. Without registration of an FIR
B. After registration of the FIR, subject to the provisions of law
C. Only after obtaining prior permission from the High Court
D. Only after filing the charge sheet

26. Which of the following Articles guarantees equality of opportunity in matters relating to public employment?
A. Article 14
B. Article 15
C. Article 16
D. Article 18

27. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Constitution guarantees equality before law.
  2. It also guarantees equal protection of the laws.
    These guarantees are contained in:
    A. Article 13
    B. Article 14
    C. Article 15
    D. Article 16
    Answer: B

28. Under criminal jurisprudence, the standard of proof required for conviction is:
A. Balance of probabilities
B. Beyond reasonable doubt
C. Clear and convincing evidence
D. Prima facie satisfaction

29. Which of the following writs is issued to inquire into the legality of a person’s claim to a public office?
A. Habeas Corpus
B. Mandamus
C. Certiorari
D. Quo Warranto

30. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Preamble is a part of the Constitution.
  2. The Preamble can be used as an aid in constitutional interpretation but cannot override the express provisions of the Constitution.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    A. 1 only
    B. 2 only
    C. Both 1 and 2
    D. Neither 1 nor 2

31. Consider the following statements regarding Article 19 of the Constitution:

  1. The freedoms guaranteed under Article 19 are available only to citizens.
  2. These freedoms are subject to reasonable restrictions imposed by law.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    A. 1 only
    B. 2 only
    C. Both 1 and 2
    D. Neither 1 nor 2

32. Which one of the following is NOT a Fundamental Right under Part III of the Constitution?
A. Right against Exploitation
B. Right to Constitutional Remedies
C. Right to Property
D. Right to Freedom of Religion

33. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, documentary evidence includes:
A. Only paper documents
B. Only registered documents
C. Documents including electronic records, as recognized by law
D. Only public documents

34. Consider the following statements:

  1. Admissions are relevant and may be proved against the person making them, subject to the provisions of law.
  2. Every admission amounts to a confession.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    A. 1 only
    B. 2 only
    C. Both 1 and 2
    D. Neither 1 nor 2

35. Which one of the following writs is issued to command a public authority to perform a public or statutory duty?
A. Habeas Corpus
B. Certiorari
C. Mandamus
D. Prohibition

36. Consider the following statements:

  1. Article 32 empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
  2. Article 226 empowers the High Courts to issue writs not only for enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also for “any other purpose.”
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    A. 1 only
    B. 2 only
    C. Both 1 and 2
    D. Neither 1 nor 2

37. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, investigation into a cognizable offence is ordinarily undertaken by:
A. The Magistrate
B. The Police
C. The District Judge
D. The Public Prosecutor

38. Which of the following correctly states the constitutional position regarding Article 21?
A. It protects only citizens.
B. It protects only convicted persons.
C. It protects every person.
D. It applies only during emergencies.

39. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Preamble declares India to be a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic.
  2. The word “Integrity” was inserted by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    A. 1 only
    B. 2 only
    C. Both 1 and 2
    D. Neither 1 nor 2

40. Which of the following cases is most closely associated with the doctrine of Basic Structure?
A. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
B. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
C. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
D. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India

41. Consider the following statements regarding Article 22 of the Constitution:
1.Every arrested person has the right to be informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds of arrest.
2.Every arrested person has the right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner of his choice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

42. Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments inserted Article 21A relating to the Right to Education?
A. 42nd Amendment
B. 44th Amendment
C. 86th Amendment
D. 97th Amendment

43. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which of the following statements is correct regarding oral evidence?
A. Oral evidence must, in general, be direct.
B. Oral evidence must always be corroborated by documentary evidence.
C. Hearsay evidence is always admissible.
D. Oral evidence is not admissible in criminal trials.

44. Consider the following statements:
1.A confession is a species of admission.
2.Every admission amounts to a confession.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

45. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a police report submitted on completion of investigation is commonly known as:
A. Charge Sheet (Final Report)
B. Decree
C. Plaint
D. Written Statement

46. Which one of the following writs is issued to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from continuing proceedings beyond its jurisdiction?
A. Habeas Corpus
B. Prohibition
C. Certiorari
D. Quo Warranto

47. Which of the following is a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A of the Constitution?
A. To safeguard public property and abjure violence
B. To vote in every election
C. To pay income tax regularly
D. To render compulsory military service

48. Consider the following statements regarding the Basic Structure Doctrine:
1.Democracy is part of the Basic Structure.
2.Rule of Law is part of the Basic Structure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

49. Under criminal jurisprudence, the prosecution is generally required to prove its case:
A. Beyond reasonable doubt
B. On the balance of probabilities
C. By clear and convincing evidence only
D. Beyond any possible doubt

50. Which of the following correctly describes the constitutional position regarding the Preamble?
A. It is enforceable as an independent source of power.
B. It can override the express provisions of the Constitution.
C. It forms part of the Constitution and may be used as an aid to interpretation.
D. It is not a part of the Constitution.

Answer Key

1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-B, 5-C, 6-B, 7-B, 8-C, 9-C, 10-C 11-C, 12-C, 13-B, 14-C, 15-C, 16-C, 17-C, 18-C, 19-B, 20-C 21-C, 22-B, 23-A, 24-C, 25-B, 26-C, 27-B, 28-B, 29-D, 30-C 31-C, 32-C, 33-C, 34-A, 35-C, 36-C, 37-B, 38-C, 39-C, 40-C 41-C, 42-C, 43-A, 44-A, 45-A, 46-B, 47-A, 48-C, 49-A, 50-C

– Team Lawyer Talks

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