An analytical set of 50 questions designed for CLAT PG aspirants, focusing on legal reasoning, doctrines, and conceptual depth aligned with exam patterns.
1. Doctrine of basic structure was evolved to limit:
A. Executive power
B. Judicial power
C. Amending power of Parliament
D. Legislative power of states
Ans: C
2. Assertion (A): Article 21 includes right to privacy.
Reason (R): It has been interpreted expansively by judiciary.
A. Both correct, R explains A
B. Both correct, R not explanation
C. A correct, R wrong
D. A wrong, R correct
Ans: A
3. Which test is applied to check arbitrariness under Article 14?
A. Reasonable classification
B. Doctrine of eclipse
C. Waiver
D. Estoppel
Ans: A
4. Case: State action lacking fairness is challenged. Principle applied:
A. Due process
B. Natural justice
C. Proportionality
D. All
Ans: D
5. Doctrine of proportionality ensures:
A. Absolute rights
B. Balance between rights and restrictions
C. No restriction
D. Unlimited power
Ans: B
6. Mens rea is not required in:
A. Murder
B. Theft
C. Strict liability offences
D. Cheating
Ans: C
7. Assertion (A): Motive is irrelevant in criminal liability.
Reason (R): Intention is more important.
A. Both correct, R explains A
B. Both correct, R not explanation
C. A correct, R wrong
D. A wrong, R correct
Ans: A
8. Absolute liability differs from strict liability because:
A. It requires fault
B. It has no exceptions
C. It is same
D. It is weaker
Ans: B
9. Case: Hazardous industry causes large-scale harm. Liability:
A. Negligence
B. Strict liability
C. Absolute liability
D. No liability
Ans: C
10. Attempt begins when:
A. Motive ends
B. Preparation ends
C. Intention forms
D. Act completes
Ans: B
11. Burden of proof in criminal law lies on prosecution.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
12. Assertion (A): Confession to police is inadmissible.
Reason (R): It may be obtained by coercion.
A. Both correct, R explains A
B. Both correct, R not explanation
C. A correct, R wrong
D. A wrong, R correct
Ans: A
13. Which section deals with dying declaration?
A. Sec 24
B. Sec 32
C. Sec 45
D. Sec 60
Ans: B
14. Leading questions are:
A. Not allowed at all
B. Allowed in cross-examination
C. Allowed in examination-in-chief
D. Only court can ask
Ans: B
15. Evidence Act applies to:
A. Court proceedings
B. Arbitration
C. Police investigation
D. All
Ans: A
16. Consideration must be lawful.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
17. Assertion (A): Agreement without consideration is void.
Reason (R): Consideration is essential element.
A. Both correct, R explains A
B. Both correct, R not explanation
C. A correct, R wrong
D. A wrong, R correct
Ans: A
18. Which agreement is void?
A. Legal object
B. Lawful consideration
C. Unlawful object
D. Valid consent
Ans: C
19. Minor’s agreement is:
A. Valid
B. Void
C. Voidable
D. Illegal
Ans: B
20. Free consent excludes:
A. Coercion
B. Fraud
C. Misrepresentation
D. All
Ans: D
21. Doctrine of legitimate expectation is part of:
A. Criminal law
B. Administrative law
C. Contract law
D. Tort
Ans: B
22. Assertion (A): Natural justice ensures fairness.
Reason (R): It includes right to hearing.
A. Both correct, R explains A
B. Both correct, R not explanation
C. A correct, R wrong
D. A wrong, R correct
Ans: A
23. Ultra vires means:
A. Within power
B. Beyond power
C. Judicial power
D. Executive action
Ans: B
24. Delegated legislation is controlled by:
A. Judiciary
B. Legislature
C. Both
D. None
Ans: C
25. Judicial review ensures:
A. Legislative supremacy
B. Constitutional supremacy
C. Executive supremacy
D. Judicial supremacy
Ans: B
26. Ratio decidendi is binding.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
27. Obiter dicta is:
A. Binding
B. Not binding
C. Law
D. Rule
Ans: B
28. Stare decisis promotes:
A. Flexibility
B. Certainty
C. Delay
D. Confusion
Ans: B
29. Case: Lower court ignores Supreme Court judgment. It is:
A. Valid
B. Invalid
C. Optional
D. Advisory
Ans: B
30. Article 141 provides binding nature of:
A. High Court decisions
B. Supreme Court decisions
C. Tribunal orders
D. Executive orders
Ans: B
31. Limitation law bars remedy.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
32. Cause of action means:
A. Evidence
B. Right to sue
C. Judgment
D. Decree
Ans: B
33. Res judicata prevents re-litigation.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
34. Assertion (A): Review lies before same court.
Reason (R): Appeal lies before higher court.
A. Both correct, R explains A
B. Both correct, R not explanation
C. A correct, R wrong
D. A wrong, R correct
Ans: B
35. Appeal is continuation of suit.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
36. Bail in bailable offence is a right.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
37. Assertion (A): Double jeopardy protects accused.
Reason (R): Same offence cannot be tried twice.
A. Both correct, R explains A
B. Both correct, R not explanation
C. A correct, R wrong
D. A wrong, R correct
Ans: A
38. FIR delay must be:
A. Ignored
B. Fatal
C. Explained
D. Illegal
Ans: C
39. Cognizable offence allows arrest without warrant.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
40. Charge is framed by:
A. Police
B. Magistrate/Judge
C. Victim
D. Lawyer
Ans: B
41. Estoppel is rule of evidence.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
42. Expert opinion is:
A. Binding
B. Advisory
C. Final
D. Irrelevant
Ans: B
43. Injunction is:
A. Criminal remedy
B. Civil remedy
C. Administrative remedy
D. Constitutional remedy
Ans: B
44. Specific performance is:
A. Damages
B. Equitable remedy
C. Criminal punishment
D. Fine
Ans: B
45. Tort law deals with:
A. Crime
B. Civil wrong
C. Contract
D. Statute
Ans: B
46. Vicarious liability arises due to:
A. Own act
B. Agent’s act
C. Crime
D. Contract
Ans: B
47. Strict liability requires no fault.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
48. Absolute liability has no exceptions.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
49. Judicial activism implies active role of judiciary.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
50. Analytical practice improves CLAT PG performance.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
– Team Lawyer Talks