This high-difficulty set of 50 LLM entrance MCQs is specially crafted for aspirants targeting top NLUs and postgraduate law programs. Covering Constitutional Law, Jurisprudence, International Law, IPC, Evidence, Contract, and advanced legal reasoning, these questions focus on conceptual depth, landmark doctrines, and analytical application.
1. The doctrine of severability is applied when:
A. Entire statute is unconstitutional
B. Valid portion can survive independently
C. Parliament dissolves law
D. Fundamental Rights are suspended
Answer: B
2. True or False: Doctrine of eclipse applies to post-constitutional laws violating Fundamental Rights.
Answer: False
3. “Constitutional morality” was extensively discussed in:
A. Kesavananda Bharati
B. Navtej Singh Johar
C. Golaknath
D. AK Gopalan
Answer: B
4. Which theory views law as command backed by sanction?
A. Historical theory
B. Natural law theory
C. Analytical positivism
D. Sociological theory
Answer: C
5. Hart distinguished between:
A. Moral and immoral laws
B. Primary and secondary rules
C. State and sovereignty
D. Crime and tort
Answer: B
6. True or False: Kelsen’s Pure Theory separates law from morality.
Answer: True
7. “Volksgeist” is associated with:
A. Austin
B. Savigny
C. Pound
D. Bentham
Answer: B
8. Which jurist propounded “social engineering”?
A. Austin
B. Salmond
C. Roscoe Pound
D. Kelsen
Answer: C
9. Opinio juris is essential element of:
A. Treaty law
B. Customary international law
C. Extradition
D. Arbitration
Answer: B
10. True or False: ICJ decisions are binding precedents for all future cases.
Answer: False
11. Monism treats international law and municipal law as:
A. Separate systems
B. Identical systems
C. Independent jurisdictions
D. Political doctrines
Answer: B
12. Which principle prohibits states from intervening in internal affairs of another state?
A. Jus cogens
B. Sovereign equality
C. Non-intervention
D. Reciprocity
Answer: C
13. Vienna Convention on Law of Treaties was adopted in:
A. 1945
B. 1948
C. 1969
D. 1986
Answer: C
14. True or False: Jus cogens norms can be derogated by treaty.
Answer: False
15. The doctrine of basic structure primarily limits:
A. Executive powers
B. Judicial powers
C. Constituent power of Parliament
D. Legislative procedure only
Answer: C
16. Which case recognized Right to Privacy as Fundamental Right?
A. ADM Jabalpur
B. Puttaswamy
C. Minerva Mills
D. Golaknath
Answer: B
17. True or False: Article 21 includes procedural due process.
Answer: True
18. Colorable legislation means:
A. Law enacted with colours
B. Legislature indirectly doing what it cannot directly do
C. Emergency legislation
D. Tax legislation
Answer: B
19. Doctrine of harmonious construction is used to:
A. Strike down statutes
B. Interpret conflicting provisions consistently
C. Amend Constitution
D. Suspend laws
Answer: B
20. “Nemo judex in causa sua” relates to:
A. Judicial review
B. Bias rule
C. Delegated legislation
D. Separation of powers
Answer: B
21. True or False: Promissory estoppel can compel Government to act contrary to law.
Answer: False
22. Which maxim forms basis of strict liability?
A. Sic utere tuo ut alienum non laedas
B. Actori incumbit onus probandi
C. Volenti non fit injuria
D. Res ipsa loquitur
Answer: A
23. Rylands v. Fletcher liability arises from:
A. Intentional wrong
B. Dangerous thing escaping from land
C. Criminal negligence
D. Defamation
Answer: B
24. True or False: Absolute liability permits exceptions similar to strict liability.
Answer: False
25. Novus actus interveniens relates to:
A. Remoteness of damage
B. Consent
C. Defamation
D. Constitutional tort
Answer: A
26. “Damnum sine injuria” means:
A. Legal injury without damage
B. Damage without legal injury
C. Tort without remedy
D. Criminal injury
Answer: B
27. Consideration under Indian Contract Act may be:
A. Past
B. Present
C. Future
D. All of the above
Answer: D
28. True or False: Stranger to consideration cannot sue under Indian law.
Answer: False
29. Quantum meruit claim arises when:
A. Contract fully performed
B. Partial performance accepted
C. Agreement void ab initio only
D. Consideration absent
Answer: B
30. Anticipatory breach gives right to:
A. Specific performance only
B. Immediate action for damages
C. Injunction only
D. Criminal prosecution
Answer: B
31. Under IPC, culpable homicide becomes murder when:
A. Intention absent
B. Exceptions apply
C. Conditions under Section 300 satisfied
D. Negligence proven
Answer: C
32. True or False: Motive is equivalent to intention in criminal law.
Answer: False
33. “Mens rea” is excluded in certain offences because of:
A. Constitutional mandate
B. Strict liability
C. Natural justice
D. Judicial review
Answer: B
34. Section 149 IPC creates:
A. Joint liability based on unlawful assembly
B. Contractual liability
C. Tortious liability
D. Constitutional liability
Answer: A
35. Grave and sudden provocation under IPC:
A. Completely absolves liability
B. Converts murder into culpable homicide
C. Removes mens rea entirely
D. Creates civil liability
Answer: B
36. True or False: Hearsay evidence has no exceptions.
Answer: False
37. Dying declaration is admissible because:
A. It is direct evidence
B. Law presumes person will not lie before death
C. Police records it
D. Magistrate certifies it only
Answer: B
38. Section 27 Evidence Act is based on doctrine of:
A. Discovery of fact
B. Estoppel
C. Presumption
D. Res gestae
Answer: A
39. Burden of proof may shift during trial due to:
A. Presumptions
B. Admissions
C. Statutory provisions
D. All of the above
Answer: D
40. True or False: Accomplice evidence is substantive evidence.
Answer: True
41. Res judicata is based upon:
A. Equity only
B. Public policy and finality of litigation
C. Criminal liability
D. Judicial bias
Answer: B
42. Review differs from appeal because review:
A. Rehears case entirely
B. Lies before same court
C. Is constitutional remedy
D. Suspends decree automatically
Answer: B
43. True or False: Appeal is inherent right.
Answer: False
44. Caveat under CPC aims to:
A. Delay proceedings
B. Prevent ex parte orders
C. Stay execution automatically
D. Review decree
Answer: B
45. Arbitration differs from mediation because arbitrator:
A. Facilitates settlement only
B. Gives binding decision
C. Has no legal authority
D. Acts as witness
Answer: B
46. Which doctrine limits delegated legislation?
A. Eclipse
B. Essential legislative function
C. Pith and substance
D. Waiver
Answer: B
47. True or False: Judicial review is part of basic structure doctrine.
Answer: True
48. PIL in India was expanded through:
A. Traditional locus standi
B. Liberalized standing rules
C. Criminal procedure only
D. Arbitration law
Answer: B
49. Standard of proof in criminal cases is:
A. Preponderance of probabilities
B. Prima facie proof
C. Beyond reasonable doubt
D. Absolute certainty
Answer: C
50. Standard of proof in civil cases generally requires:
A. Mathematical certainty
B. Beyond reasonable doubt
C. Preponderance of probabilities
D. Conclusive evidence only
Answer: C
– Team Lawyer Talks