This extreme-level set of 50 LLM Entrance MCQs is designed for aspirants targeting top NLUs and premier postgraduate law programs. Covering advanced Constitutional Law, Jurisprudence, International Law, IPC, Evidence, Contract, Administrative Law, and analytical legal reasoning, these questions focus on conceptual precision, doctrinal depth, and high-level legal aptitude.
1. Which doctrine primarily limits Parliament’s constituent power under Article 368?
A. Doctrine of eclipse
B. Doctrine of pith and substance
C. Basic structure doctrine
D. Doctrine of severability
Answer: C
2. True or False: Judicial review is considered part of the basic structure doctrine.
Answer: True
3. “Procedure established by law” under Article 21 acquired substantive due process interpretation in:
A. AK Gopalan
B. Maneka Gandhi
C. Golaknath
D. Shankari Prasad
Answer: B
4. Doctrine of eclipse applies to:
A. Constitutional amendments only
B. Pre-constitutional laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights
C. Tax legislation only
D. Emergency laws exclusively
Answer: B
5. Colorable legislation means legislature:
A. Acts retrospectively
B. Indirectly does what it cannot directly do
C. Delegates excessive powers
D. Violates natural justice
Answer: B
6. True or False: Parliament can abrogate judicial review through constitutional amendment.
Answer: False
7. “Constitutional morality” was substantially discussed in:
A. Kesavananda Bharati
B. Navtej Singh Johar
C. Golaknath
D. AK Gopalan
Answer: B
8. The doctrine of proportionality is extensively used in:
A. Contract law
B. Administrative law review
C. Tort damages only
D. Criminal conspiracy
Answer: B
9. H.L.A. Hart distinguished between:
A. Sovereignty and sanctions
B. Primary and secondary rules
C. Law and morality only
D. Rights and duties exclusively
Answer: B
10. True or False: Austin considered custom as independent source of law.
Answer: False
11. Kelsen’s Grundnorm is:
A. Judicial precedent
B. Sovereign command
C. Foundational norm deriving validity to legal system
D. Customary law
Answer: C
12. Savigny associated law with:
A. Social engineering
B. Volksgeist
C. Analytical positivism
D. Utilitarianism
Answer: B
13. Roscoe Pound viewed law as instrument of:
A. Sovereign authority
B. Social engineering
C. Historical evolution
D. Judicial supremacy
Answer: B
14. True or False: Natural law theory completely separates law from morality.
Answer: False
15. “Opinio juris” is essential element of:
A. Treaty law
B. Diplomatic immunity
C. Customary international law
D. Extradition
Answer: C
16. Monism treats municipal and international law as:
A. Separate legal systems
B. Single unified legal order
C. Competing sovereignties
D. Political doctrines only
Answer: B
17. True or False: Jus cogens norms may be derogated through treaty.
Answer: False
18. Vienna Convention on Law of Treaties was adopted in:
A. 1945
B. 1948
C. 1969
D. 1986
Answer: C
19. Extradition differs from asylum because extradition involves:
A. Diplomatic privilege
B. Surrender of accused person to requesting state
C. Humanitarian protection only
D. Recognition of statehood
Answer: B
20. International Court of Justice decisions are binding:
A. On all UN members
B. Only upon parties to dispute
C. As universal precedent
D. On Security Council only
Answer: B
21. True or False: ICJ possesses compulsory jurisdiction over all sovereign states.
Answer: False
22. “Res ipsa loquitur” relates to:
A. Constitutional tort
B. Criminal liability
C. Tortious negligence
D. Contractual breach
Answer: C
23. Rylands v. Fletcher established doctrine of:
A. Absolute liability
B. Strict liability
C. Negligence
D. Remoteness of damages
Answer: B
24. Absolute liability in India evolved through:
A. Donoghue v. Stevenson
B. MC Mehta
C. Kesavananda Bharati
D. Rylands v. Fletcher
Answer: B
25. “Novus actus interveniens” concerns:
A. Consent
B. Remoteness of damages
C. Vicarious liability
D. Constitutional remedies
Answer: B
26. True or False: Damnum sine injuria is actionable in tort law.
Answer: False
27. Consideration under Indian Contract Act may be:
A. Past
B. Present
C. Future
D. All of the above
Answer: D
28. Doctrine of privity under Indian law means:
A. Stranger to consideration cannot sue
B. Stranger to contract generally cannot sue
C. Minor may enforce every contract
D. Every agreement is enforceable
Answer: B
29. Quantum meruit claim arises when:
A. Contract fully performed
B. Partial performance accepted
C. Agreement void for illegality only
D. No consideration exists
Answer: B
30. Anticipatory breach allows aggrieved party to:
A. Wait compulsorily till due date
B. Sue immediately for damages
C. Seek criminal prosecution only
D. Ignore breach completely
Answer: B
31. True or False: Motive and intention are identical concepts in criminal law.
Answer: False
32. Under IPC, culpable homicide becomes murder when:
A. Knowledge absent
B. Conditions under Section 300 satisfied
C. Negligence established
D. Motive absent
Answer: B
33. Grave and sudden provocation under IPC:
A. Completely absolves criminal liability
B. Converts murder into culpable homicide
C. Removes actus reus
D. Creates civil liability only
Answer: B
34. Section 149 IPC imposes liability based on:
A. Common intention
B. Common object of unlawful assembly
C. Criminal negligence
D. Vicarious liability alone
Answer: B
35. Strict liability offences generally exclude requirement of:
A. Actus reus
B. Mens rea
C. Jurisdiction
D. Punishment
Answer: B
36. True or False: Hearsay evidence has absolutely no exceptions.
Answer: False
37. Dying declaration is admissible because law presumes:
A. Magistrate certification mandatory
B. Person nearing death unlikely to lie
C. Police verification sufficient
D. It is documentary evidence
Answer: B
38. Section 27 Evidence Act partially validates:
A. Entire police confession
B. Discovery portion of accused information
C. Character evidence
D. Secondary evidence
Answer: B
39. Accomplice evidence is considered:
A. Inadmissible
B. Substantive evidence
C. Secondary evidence
D. Illegal evidence
Answer: B
40. True or False: Corroboration of accomplice evidence is rule of prudence.
Answer: True
41. Res judicata is based upon:
A. Criminal liability
B. Public policy and finality of litigation
C. Constitutional supremacy
D. Delegated legislation
Answer: B
42. Caveat under CPC aims to:
A. Delay proceedings
B. Prevent ex parte orders
C. Stay execution automatically
D. Transfer jurisdiction
Answer: B
43. Review differs from appeal because review lies before:
A. Higher court
B. Same court
C. Executive authority
D. Tribunal only
Answer: B
44. True or False: Appeal is an inherent right.
Answer: False
45. Arbitration differs from mediation because arbitrator:
A. Facilitates settlement only
B. Delivers binding adjudicatory decision
C. Acts as witness
D. Possesses no adjudicatory power
Answer: B
46. Doctrine limiting excessive delegation is:
A. Eclipse
B. Essential legislative function
C. Waiver
D. Harmonious construction
Answer: B
47. Public Interest Litigation expanded through liberalization of:
A. Judicial review
B. Locus standi
C. Delegated legislation
D. Federalism
Answer: B
48. True or False: Article 32 itself is a Fundamental Right.
Answer: True
49. Standard of proof in criminal cases is:
A. Preponderance of probabilities
B. Beyond reasonable doubt
C. Suspicion
D. Prima facie satisfaction
Answer: B
50. Standard of proof in civil cases is generally:
A. Beyond reasonable doubt
B. Mathematical certainty
C. Preponderance of probabilities
D. Absolute proof
Answer: C
– Team Lawyer Talks