AIBE 2026 Practice Set: 50 Conceptual MCQs for Bare Act Mastery

A carefully designed set of 50 AIBE-style MCQs covering Constitutional Law, IPC, CrPC, Evidence, and other core subjects. Focused on bare act clarity and conceptual understanding, this set helps law students revise important provisions and improve accuracy for the All India Bar Examination.

1. Under the Code of Civil Procedure, a decree can be preliminary when:

A. It disposes of the entire suit

B. It decides all issues finally

C. Further proceedings are required before final disposal

D. It is passed ex parte

2. The burden of proof in a suit lies on:

A. Defendant

B. Plaintiff

C. Court

D. Witness

3. Under the Indian Contract Act, consideration must be:

A. Adequate

B. Lawful

C. Written

D. Express

4. A contract made with a minor is:

A. Void

B. Voidable

C. Valid

D. Illegal

5. Under IPC, theft is defined under:

A. Section 378

B. Section 300

C. Section 420

D. Section 499

6. Cheating is punishable under:

A. Section 406 IPC

B. Section 420 IPC

C. Section 304 IPC

D. Section 120B IPC

7. Under CrPC, FIR is registered under:

A. Section 154

B. Section 161

C. Section 173

D. Section 190

8. Police custody can be authorized for a maximum of:

A. 7 days

B. 10 days

C. 15 days

D. 30 days

9. Under Evidence Act, confession to police officer is:

A. Admissible

B. Inadmissible

C. Partly admissible

D. Depends on case

10. Dying declaration is:

A. Always inadmissible

B. Admissible

C. Needs corroboration always

D. Invalid without oath

11. Article 14 of Constitution deals with:

A. Freedom of speech

B. Equality before law

C. Right to life

D. Religious freedom

12. Article 21 guarantees:

A. Equality

B. Life and personal liberty

C. Freedom of speech

D. Right to property

13. Writ of Habeas Corpus is for:

A. Property disputes

B. Illegal detention

C. Contract enforcement

D. Tax disputes

14. The Supreme Court’s original jurisdiction is under:

A. Article 32

B. Article 131

C. Article 136

D. Article 226

15. Under Transfer of Property Act, sale is defined under:

A. Section 54

B. Section 52

C. Section 60

D. Section 10

16. Mortgage is defined under:

A. Section 58

B. Section 54

C. Section 100

D. Section 105

17. Lease is defined under:

A. Section 105 TPA

B. Section 54 TPA

C. Section 58 TPA

D. Section 60 TPA

18. Under Specific Relief Act, specific performance is:

A. Discretionary

B. Mandatory always

C. Illegal

D. Penal

19. Partnership Act defines partnership under:

A. Section 2

B. Section 4

C. Section 5

D. Section 6

20. Maximum number of partners in a firm is:

A. 10

B. 20

C. 50

D. Unlimited

21. Company is a:

A. Natural person

B. Artificial person

C. Minor

D. Partnership

22. Memorandum of Association defines:

A. Internal rules

B. External scope

C. Daily work

D. Staff duties

23. Under NI Act, cheque validity is:

A. 1 month

B. 3 months

C. 6 months

D. 1 year

24. Dishonour of cheque is under:

A. Section 138 NI Act

B. Section 420 IPC

C. Section 406 IPC

D. Section 300 IPC

25. Consumer Protection Act protects:

A. Traders

B. Consumers

C. Government

D. Employees

26. Under CPC, res judicata is under:

A. Section 9

B. Section 11

C. Section 10

D. Section 12

27. Limitation Act bars:

A. Right

B. Remedy

C. Evidence

D. Contract

28. Arbitration Act deals with:

A. Criminal law

B. Civil disputes settlement

C. Tax disputes

D. Property disputes

29. Tort law is:

A. Codified

B. Uncodified

C. Criminal

D. Constitutional

30. Defamation includes:

A. Libel and slander

B. Only libel

C. Only slander

D. None

31. Under IPC, murder is defined under:

A. Section 300

B. Section 299

C. Section 302

D. Section 304

32. Punishment for murder is under:

A. Section 300

B. Section 302

C. Section 304

D. Section 299

33. Dowry death is under:

A. Section 498A

B. Section 304B

C. Section 306

D. Section 302

34. Cruelty by husband is under:

A. Section 498A IPC

B. Section 304B IPC

C. Section 306 IPC

D. Section 420 IPC

35. Under CrPC, charge is framed under:

A. Section 154

B. Section 228

C. Section 161

D. Section 173

36. Bail is:

A. Right always

B. Discretionary

C. Both

D. None

37. Under Evidence Act, relevant facts are under:

A. Section 5

B. Section 10

C. Section 20

D. Section 50

38. Estoppel is under:

A. Section 115

B. Section 101

C. Section 32

D. Section 45

39. Expert opinion is under:

A. Section 45

B. Section 50

C. Section 60

D. Section 115

40. Right to constitutional remedies is under:

A. Article 14

B. Article 32

C. Article 19

D. Article 21

41. Freedom of speech is under:

A. Article 21

B. Article 19(1)(a)

C. Article 32

D. Article 14

42. PIL stands for:

A. Public Interest Litigation

B. Private Interest Law

C. Public Internal Law

D. Personal Interest Litigation

43. Doctrine of basic structure was propounded in:

A. Kesavananda Bharati case

B. Maneka Gandhi case

C. Golaknath case

D. Minerva Mills case

44. Natural justice includes:

A. Bias rule

B. Hearing rule

C. Both

D. None

45. Audi alteram partem means:

A. No one should be judge in own cause

B. Hear the other side

C. Justice delayed

D. Justice denied

46. Nemo judex in causa sua means:

A. Hear the other side

B. No bias

C. Justice delayed

D. Fair trial

47. Contempt of court is:

A. Civil only

B. Criminal only

C. Both

D. None

48. Advocate Act governs:

A. Judges

B. Lawyers

C. Police

D. Clients

49. Bar Council of India is established under:

A. Advocates Act

B. IPC

C. CPC

D. CrPC

50. Professional misconduct is dealt by:

A. Supreme Court

B. Bar Council

C. Police

D. Government

Answer Key:

– Team Lawyer Talks

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