AIBE-Level MCQs of 50 Questions – Bare Act Based Legal Practice Set

Prepare smart for the All India Bar Examination with this advanced set of 50 MCQs. Focused on Bare Acts, professional ethics, procedural law, and practical legal application, this set is designed to simulate real AIBE difficulty and sharpen your accuracy.

1. Under the Advocates Act, the Bar Council of India is constituted under:
   A. Section 4
   B. Section 5
   C. Section 6
   D. Section 7
   Answer: A
2. True or False: AIBE is conducted by State Bar Councils.
   Answer: False
3. An advocate is bound to accept any brief in the court under:
   A. Duty to court
   B. Duty to client
   C. Rule of professional ethics
   D. Not mandatory
   Answer: D
4. “He who seeks equity must do equity” relates to:
   A. Criminal law
   B. Equity
   C. Contract
   D. Tort
   Answer: B
5. Contingency fee agreements are:
   A. Valid
   B. Void
   C. Illegal
   D. Optional
   Answer: B
6. True or False: Advertising by advocates is strictly prohibited in India.
   Answer: True (with limited exceptions)
7. Under CPC, a plaint must contain:
   A. Cause of action
   B. Relief claimed
   C. Facts
   D. All of the above
   Answer: D
8. Return of plaint is governed under:
   A. Order 7 Rule 10
   B. Order 6 Rule 2
   C. Order 5 Rule 1
   D. Order 8 Rule 1
   Answer: A
9. “Equity aids the vigilant” means:
   A. Law helps lazy
   B. Law helps those who are alert
   C. Law delays
   D. Law punishes
   Answer: B
10. True or False: Written statement must be filed within 30 days (extendable to 90 days).
    Answer: True
11. Under CrPC, summons case is defined in:
    A. Section 2(w)
    B. Section 2(x)
    C. Section 2(y)
    D. Section 2(z)
    Answer: A
12. Warrant cases relate to offences punishable with:
    A. Fine only
    B. Death, life imprisonment, or >2 years
    C. Minor offences
    D. Civil wrongs
    Answer: B
13. “Actio personalis moritur cum persona” means:
    A. Personal action dies with person
    B. Law survives
    C. Justice continues
    D. Contract ends
    Answer: A
14. True or False: FIR can be quashed by High Court under Section 482 CrPC.
    Answer: True
15. Compounding of offences is provided under:
    A. Section 320 CrPC
    B. Section 321 CrPC
    C. Section 322 CrPC
    D. Section 300 CrPC
    Answer: A
16. Under Evidence Act, admissions are:
    A. Conclusive proof
    B. Not relevant
    C. Relevant but not conclusive
    D. Irrelevant
    Answer: C
17. Estoppel is defined under:
    A. Section 115
    B. Section 114
    C. Section 116
    D. Section 117
    Answer: A
18. True or False: Opinion of expert is relevant fact.
    Answer: True
19. “Ignorantia facti excusat” means:
    A. Ignorance of fact excuses
    B. Ignorance of law excuses
    C. Law is strict
    D. Fact is irrelevant
    Answer: A
20. Secondary evidence is admissible when:
    A. Original lost
    B. Original unavailable
    C. Original destroyed
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D
21. Under IPC, cheating is defined under:
    A. Section 415
    B. Section 420
    C. Section 406
    D. Section 378
    Answer: A
22. Criminal breach of trust is under:
    A. Section 406
    B. Section 405
    C. Section 420
    D. Section 409
    Answer: B
23. True or False: Intention and knowledge are the same.
    Answer: False
24. “Mens rea” is essential in:
    A. All crimes
    B. Strict liability
    C. Most crimes
    D. None
    Answer: C
25. Theft requires:
    A. Dishonest intention
    B. Consent
    C. Force
    D. Mistake
    Answer: A
26. Under Contract Act, void agreement is defined under:
    A. Section 2(g)
    B. Section 2(h)
    C. Section 10
    D. Section 11
    Answer: A
27. Agreement enforceable by law is:
    A. Contract
    B. Void
    C. Illegal
    D. Unlawful
    Answer: A
28. True or False: Minor’s agreement is void ab initio.
    Answer: True
29. Consideration may move from:
    A. Promisee only
    B. Promisor
    C. Third party
    D. None
    Answer: C
30. “Consensus ad idem” means:
    A. Agreement
    B. Meeting of minds
    C. Contract
    D. Consideration
    Answer: B
31. Tort of negligence requires:
    A. Duty
    B. Breach
    C. Damage
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D
32. Strict liability arises from:
    A. Fault
    B. Negligence
    C. Hazardous activity
    D. Contract
    Answer: C
33. True or False: Defamation requires publication.
    Answer: True
34. Libel is:
    A. Spoken
    B. Written
    C. Gesture
    D. All
    Answer: B
35. Slander is:
    A. Written
    B. Spoken
    C. Permanent
    D. Documented
    Answer: B
36. Under Consumer Protection Act, consumer includes:
    A. Buyer
    B. User
    C. Beneficiary
    D. All
    Answer: D
37. True or False: Free services are covered under Consumer Law.
    Answer: False
38. Professional misconduct is decided by:
    A. Court
    B. Bar Council
    C. Police
    D. Client
    Answer: B
39. Punishment for contempt of court includes:
    A. Fine
    B. Imprisonment
    C. Both
    D. None
    Answer: C
40. True or False: Supreme Court has power of contempt.
    Answer: True
41. Arbitration is governed by:
    A. 1940 Act
    B. 1996 Act
    C. 2015 Act
    D. 1980 Act
    Answer: B
42. Lok Adalat awards are:
    A. Appealable
    B. Binding
    C. Optional
    D. Advisory
    Answer: B
43. True or False: Appeal lies against Lok Adalat award.
    Answer: False
44. Under RTI Act, information must be provided within:
    A. 15 days
    B. 30 days
    C. 45 days
    D. 60 days
    Answer: B
45. PIL can be filed under:
    A. Article 32
    B. Article 226
    C. Both
    D. None
    Answer: C
46. “Res judicata” applies to:
    A. Same parties
    B. Same issue
    C. Same cause
    D. All
    Answer: D
47. True or False: Review and appeal are same.
    Answer: False
48. Review is filed before:
    A. Same court
    B. Higher court
    C. Tribunal
    D. Authority
    Answer: A
49. Revision is filed in:
    A. Same court
    B. Higher court
    C. Police
    D. Tribunal
    Answer: B
50. Limitation Act bars:
    A. Right
    B. Remedy
    C. Both
    D. None
    Answer: B

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