1. Which of the following statements regarding the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is correct?
(a) Every immoral act is an offence under the BNS.
(b) An act becomes an offence only when it is made punishable by law.
(c) Every civil wrong is also a criminal offence.
(d) Motive alone is sufficient to constitute an offence.
2. Which of the following correctly describes the principle of joint liability under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
(a) Mere presence at the place of occurrence is sufficient to attract liability.
(b) A criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all.
(c) Joint liability exists only where there is a written agreement between offenders.
(d) Joint liability applies only to offences punishable with death.
3. Which of the following statements is correct regarding an FIR under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?
(a) It is substantive evidence of the facts stated therein.
(b) It records information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence and ordinarily forms the basis of investigation.
(c) It can be lodged only by the victim.
(d) It is mandatory in every non-cognizable offence.
4. Which of the following statements regarding arrest is correct?
(a) Arrest is intended to punish the accused before trial.
(b) Arrest secures the presence of the accused and facilitates investigation and trial in accordance with law.
(c) Every person against whom an FIR is registered must necessarily be arrested.
(d) Arrest can be made only after filing of the charge-sheet.
5. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which of the following statements regarding admissions is correct?
(a) Every admission is conclusive proof of the matter admitted.
(b) Admissions are relevant but are not conclusive proof, though they may operate as estoppel.
(c) Admissions are relevant only in criminal proceedings.
(d) Oral admissions are never admissible.
6. Which of the following correctly explains the doctrine of Res Gestae?
(a) It relates only to expert opinion.
(b) Facts forming part of the same transaction may become relevant.
(c) It applies only to documentary evidence.
(d) It relates exclusively to confessions.
7. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution embodies the principle of equality before law?
(a) Article 12
(b) Article 14
(c) Article 19
(d) Article 32
8. Which of the following judgments propounded the Basic Structure Doctrine?
(a) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(b) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
(c) Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India
(d) S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
9. Which of the following is not a writ issued under the Constitution of India?
(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Certiorari
(c) Injunction
(d) Quo Warranto
10. Consider the following statements:
Judicial Review forms part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution.
Parliament cannot destroy the Basic Structure of the Constitution by exercising its amending power.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
11. Consider the following statements regarding the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023:
Electronic records are recognised as evidence subject to the provisions of law.
Electronic evidence is inadmissible merely because it is in digital form.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
12. Which of the following statements regarding burden of proof is correct?
(a) The burden of proof always lies upon the accused.
(b) The burden of proof generally lies upon the person who asserts a fact.
(c) The Court determines the burden of proof in every case irrespective of law.
(d) The prosecution is never required to prove its case.
13. Which one of the following is an essential principle of criminal jurisprudence?
(a) Every accused is presumed guilty until proved innocent.
(b) Every accused is presumed innocent unless proved guilty according to law.
(c) The accused must prove his innocence in every case.
(d) Conviction may be based solely on suspicion.
14. Which of the following statements regarding anticipatory bail under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 is correct?
(a) It is granted after conviction.
(b) It is a pre-arrest legal protection that may be granted by the competent court in appropriate cases.
(c) It is available only for bailable offences.
(d) It can be granted only by the Supreme Court.
15. Which of the following best describes a non-cognizable offence?
(a) Police may arrest without warrant as a matter of right.
(b) Police ordinarily require the Magistrate’s order to investigate.
(c) Every non-cognizable offence is compoundable.
(d) Every non-cognizable offence is triable exclusively by the Court of Session.
16. Which of the following writs is issued to compel a public authority to perform a public duty?
(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Certiorari
(d) Prohibition
17. Which of the following Articles makes the law declared by the Supreme Court binding on all courts within the territory of India?
(a) Article 136
(b) Article 141
(c) Article 226
(d) Article 227
18. The doctrine of ‘Rule of Law’ primarily means:
(a) Absolute supremacy of the Executive.
(b) Equality before law and absence of arbitrary power.
(c) Unlimited powers of Parliament.
(d) Judicial supremacy over the Constitution.
19. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Case)
List-II (Principle)
A. Kesavananda Bharati
B. Maneka Gandhi
C. I.R. Coelho
1. Basic Structure Doctrine
2. Fair, Just and Reasonable Procedure
3. Judicial Review of Ninth Schedule Laws
Codes:
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3
(b) A-2, B-1, C-3
(c) A-3, B-2, C-1
(d) A-1, B-3, C-2
20. Consider the following statements:
1.Natural Justice includes the rule Audi Alteram Partem.
2.No person should be a judge in his own cause.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
21. Which of the following statements regarding common intention under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is correct?
(a) Mere presence at the place of occurrence is sufficient to attract joint liability.
(b) Common intention requires participation in the commission of the criminal act in furtherance of a shared intention.
(c) Common intention applies only where there are more than five accused.
(d) Common intention and common object are identical.
22. Consider the following statements regarding the right of private defence:
1.The right of private defence is available only against offences affecting the human body.
2.The right is subject to the limitations prescribed by law.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
23. Which of the following statements regarding confessions under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 is correct?
(a) Every confession made to a police officer is admissible.
(b) A confession must satisfy the conditions of admissibility prescribed by law.
(c) Every confession is conclusive proof of guilt.
(d) A confession is relevant only in civil proceedings.
24. Which one of the following is generally regarded as the best evidence?
(a) Hearsay evidence
(b) Secondary evidence
(c) Primary evidence
(d) Opinion evidence
25. Which of the following correctly states the object of cross-examination?
(a) To introduce an entirely new cause of action.
(b) To test the truthfulness and credibility of the witness.
(c) To pronounce the judgment.
(d) To frame charges.
26. Which of the following writs is preventive in nature and is issued before an inferior court exceeds its jurisdiction?
(a) Certiorari
(b) Mandamus
(c) Prohibition
(d) Habeas Corpus
27. Which one of the following judgments recognised the Right to Privacy as a Fundamental Right under Article 21?
(a) A.D.M. Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla
(b) Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India
(c) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(d) S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
28. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right under the Constitution of India?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(c) Right to Property
(d) Right to Freedom
29. Consider the following statements:
Every administrative authority must act fairly.
Administrative action may be subject to judicial review.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
30. Which of the following principles is associated with the doctrine of Promissory Estoppel?
(a) A promise inducing a person to alter his position may, in appropriate cases, be enforceable even without consideration.
(b) Every promise constitutes a valid contract.
(c) Promissory estoppel applies only against private individuals and never against the Government.
(d) Promissory estoppel overrides statutory provisions.
31. Which of the following statements regarding delegated legislation is correct?
(a) Delegated legislation can override the Constitution.
(b) Delegated legislation is not subject to judicial review.
(c) Delegated legislation must conform to the parent statute and the Constitution.
(d) Delegated legislation has the same status as a constitutional amendment.
32. Which one of the following is a ground for judicial review of administrative action?
(a) Mala fide exercise of power
(b) Irrelevant considerations
(c) Violation of principles of natural justice
(d) All of the above
33. Consider the following statements regarding Article 32 of the Constitution:
1.Article 32 guarantees the Right to Constitutional Remedies.
2.The Supreme Court may issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
34. Which of the following statements regarding the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 is correct?
(a) Admissions are always conclusive proof.
(b) A leading question may ordinarily be asked in cross-examination without the permission of the Court.
(c) Hearsay evidence is always admissible.
(d) Documentary evidence is superior to primary evidence in every case.
35. Which of the following best explains the object of criminal law?
(a) To settle private contractual disputes.
(b) To maintain public order by defining offences and prescribing punishments.
(c) To enforce only civil rights.
(d) To regulate taxation.
36. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Case)List-II (Principle)
A. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
B. Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India
C. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
1. Procedure must be fair, just and reasonable
2. Right to Privacy
3. Federalism and Judicial Review of President’s Rule
Codes:
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3
(b) A-2, B-3, C-1
(c) A-3, B-1, C-2
(d) A-1, B-3, C-2
37. Which of the following statements regarding fair investigation is correct?
(a) Investigation should aim only at securing conviction.
(b) Investigation must be impartial and conducted in accordance with law.
(c) Investigation should favour the complainant.
(d) Investigation should favour the accused.
38. Which of the following Articles protects a person against conviction under an ex post facto criminal law?
(a) Article 19
(b) Article 20(1)
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 22
39. Consider the following statements:
1.Judicial Review is part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution.
2.Rule of Law is also recognised as part of the Basic Structure.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
40. Which one of the following writs is issued against a person who unlawfully holds a public office?
(a) Mandamus
(b) Certiorari
(c) Quo Warranto
(d) Habeas Corpus
41. Which of the following statements regarding the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 is correct?
(a) Every accused must be arrested immediately after registration of an FIR.
(b) Arrest should be made only in accordance with the provisions of law and where justified by the facts and circumstances of the case.
(c) Arrest can be made only after filing of the charge-sheet.
(d) Police can never arrest without a warrant.
42. Which of the following statements regarding electronic evidence under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 is correct?
(a) Electronic records are not recognised as evidence.
(b) Electronic records are admissible only in civil proceedings.
(c) Electronic records are recognised as evidence subject to the provisions of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023.
(d) Electronic records are admissible only if produced in original hardware.
43. Which one of the following is a feature of the doctrine of proportionality in Administrative Law?
(a) Every administrative action is beyond judicial review.
(b) Administrative action should not be excessive in relation to the object sought to be achieved.
(c) Administrative authorities have absolute discretion.
(d) Courts cannot interfere with administrative decisions.
44. Consider the following statements:
1.The President of India can promulgate an Ordinance only when Parliament is not in session.
2.An Ordinance has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament while it remains in operation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
45. Under which Article of the Constitution is the law declared by the Supreme Court binding on all courts within the territory of India?
(a) Article 136
(b) Article 141
(c) Article 226
(d) Article 227
46. Which of the following is not a ground for judicial review of administrative action?
(a) Illegality
(b) Procedural impropriety
(c) Irrationality
(d) Political popularity of the decision
47. Which one of the following correctly explains the doctrine of Legitimate Expectation?
(a) It creates an absolute legal right in every case.
(b) It protects a reasonable expectation arising from the conduct or representation of a public authority.
(c) It applies only to private contracts.
(d) It excludes judicial review.
48. Which of the following statements regarding the Constitution of India is correct?
(a) Every Directive Principle is enforceable by courts.
(b) Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles are complementary and should be harmoniously construed.
(c) Directive Principles override Fundamental Rights.
(d) Fundamental Duties are enforceable through writ petitions.
49. Consider the following statements:
1. Every accused is presumed innocent until proved guilty according to law.
2. Suspicion, however strong, cannot take the place of legal proof.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
50. Which of the following best reflects the object of the criminal justice system?
(a) To secure conviction in every case.
(b) To ensure a fair investigation, fair trial and administration of justice in accordance with law.
(c) To punish every accused irrespective of evidence.
(d) To protect only the rights of the victim.
Answer Key :
1-b, 2-b, 3-b, 4-b, 5-b, 6-b, 7-b, 8-b, 9-c, 10-c, 11-c, 12-b, 13-b, 14-b, 15-b, 16-b, 17-b, 18-b, 19-a, 20-c, 21-b, 22-b, 23-b, 24-c, 25-b, 26-c, 27-b, 28-c, 29-c, 30-a, 31-c, 32-d, 33-c, 34-b, 35-b, 36-a, 37-b, 38-b, 39-c, 40-c, 41-b, 42-c, 43-b, 44-c, 45-b, 46-d, 47-b, 48-b, 49-c, 50-b
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