- Under the Transfer of Property Act, “attached to the earth” means:
(a) Rooted in the earth, as in the case of trees and shrubs
(b) Embedded in the earth, as in the case of walls or buildings
(c) Attached to what is embedded for the permanent beneficial enjoyment of that to which it is attached
(d) All of the above - A transfers property to B for life and then to B’s first son from her intended marriage who first attains the age of 18 years. The son’s interest is:
(a) Vested interest
(b) Contingent interest
(c) Special interest
(d) None of the above - A gifts his whole property to B, one part of which is subject to payment of debt. The donee can take nothing by the gift unless:
(a) He accepts nothing
(b) He accepts it fully
(c) He accepts it partly
(d) He accepts it substantially - Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the rule against perpetuity does not apply where property is transferred:
(a) For the benefit of lineal descendants
(b) For promoting Sati
(c) For establishing a winery
(d) For building a hospital for the poor - Where immovable property is made security for payment of money without creating a mortgage, the transaction is known as:
(a) Mortgage
(b) Sale
(c) Charge
(d) Lease - A gift of immovable property must be effected by:
(a) A registered instrument signed by or on behalf of the donor
(b) Attested by at least two witnesses
(c) Delivery of possession only
(d) Both (a) and (b) - Where an interest is created to take effect only on the happening of a specified uncertain event, such interest is:
(a) Vested interest
(b) Contingent interest
(c) Implied interest
(d) Absolute interest - Which of the following is not an equitable maxim?
(a) Equity will not suffer a wrong without a remedy
(b) Equity acts in personam
(c) Equity looks upon that as done which ought to be done
(d) Equity looks to form and not intent - Equity will refuse relief to a person who:
(a) Does not pay court fees
(b) Does not produce evidence
(c) Acts contrary to good faith and good conscience
(d) All of the above - Under the Specific Relief Act, specific performance of contracts connected with trusts is enforceable under:
(a) Section 12
(b) Section 11
(c) Section 10
(d) None of the above - Which one of the following is NOT an equitable maxim?
(a) Ex aequo et bono
(b) Delay does not defeat equity
(c) Equality is equity
(d) Where equities are equal, the law shall prevail - English principles of equity are applicable in India when:
(a) They are uncertain in nature
(b) They are not suitable to Indian society and circumstances
(c) They do not command universal acceptance
(d) They are consistent with justice, equity and good conscience - X, a trustee of Y’s insurance policy, has sufficient funds to pay the premium but negligently fails to do so, resulting in forfeiture of the policy. X:
(a) Is not liable to compensate Y
(b) Is liable to compensate Y for the loss
(c) Is liable only if Y demanded payment in advance
(d) Has no legal responsibility - An injunction cannot be granted:
(a) To prevent a continuing breach where the plaintiff has not acquiesced
(b) In case of breach of trust
(c) To prevent multiplicity of judicial proceedings
(d) Where the plaintiff has no personal interest in the matter - A, a Muslim heir apparent, receives ₹10 lakh from her father B during his lifetime in lieu of her share. After B’s death, A claims inheritance. The correct legal position is:
(a) A is entitled to inherit B’s property
(b) A can inherit only after returning ₹10 lakh to the other heirs
(c) A can inherit only with permission of the court
(d) A cannot inherit because she already accepted ₹10 lakh - Who does NOT have the right to redeem a mortgaged property?
(a) Mortgagor
(b) Surety for the mortgage debt
(c) Illegitimate son having only a right of maintenance from the mortgaged property
(d) Subsequent mortgagee - The principle of fiduciary relationship under the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 is incorporated in:
(a) Section 80
(b) Section 83
(c) Section 86
(d) Section 88 - A mortgage containing unreasonable restrictions on the mortgagor’s right of redemption is known as:
(a) Mortgage by conditional sale
(b) Clog on the equity of redemption
(c) English mortgage
(d) Usufructuary mortgage - The doctrine of acceleration under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is contained in:
(a) Section 27
(b) Section 28
(c) Section 29
(d) Section 30 - “Specific Goods” under the Sale of Goods Act means:
(a) Goods identified and agreed upon at the time the contract of sale is made
(b) Goods identified only at the time of delivery
(c) Goods identified when payment is made by the buyer
(d) Future goods identified after manufacture - Under the Sale of Goods Act, delivery of goods by instalments is binding on the buyer only when:
(a) The goods are perishable
(b) The sale is by sample
(c) The seller chooses to deliver in instalments
(d) It is agreed between the parties at the time of the contract - Which one of the following can be treated as a valid promissory note?
(a) I promise to pay A ₹50,000 after deducting the amount he owes me.
(b) I promise to pay A ₹50,000 on B’s marriage provided I inherit A’s property.
(c) I promise to pay A ₹50,000 on 1st September, 2023.
(d) I promise to pay ₹50,000 fifteen days after my son’s marriage. - If a gift is accepted during the lifetime of the donor but the donor dies before registration, the gift is:
(a) Void
(b) Voidable
(c) Valid, if acceptance was made during the donor’s lifetime and registration is completed as required by law
(d) Invalid - Which one of the following statements is NOT valid regarding the issue of bonus shares?
(a) Bonus issue must be authorized by the Articles of Association.
(b) Bonus issue should be approved by shareholders on the recommendation of the Board of Directors.
(c) Bonus shares shall not be issued in lieu of dividend.
(d) Approval of the Controller of Capital Issues is mandatory before every bonus issue. - Which of the following is an implied authority of a partner?
(a) Compromise any claim of the firm.
(b) Carry on the business of the firm in the usual way.
(c) Refer disputes to arbitration without authority.
(d) Open a bank account in his own name on behalf of the firm. - After dissolution of a firm, the seller of goodwill:
(a) May freely use the old firm’s name.
(b) May represent himself as carrying on the old firm’s business.
(c) May carry on a competing business unless restricted by agreement.
(d) May solicit the old firm’s customers. - A cheque is drawn in favour of a minor (M), who endorses it to X. The cheque is dishonoured due to insufficient funds. X can proceed against:
(a) M only
(b) The drawer (A)
(c) The bank only
(d) No one - A bearer cheque is negotiable:
(a) By endorsement only
(b) By delivery
(c) By restrictive endorsement
(d) By blank endorsement only - Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) An agreement enforceable by law is a contract [Section 2(a)]
(b) All agreements are contracts [Section 10]
(c) A proposal when accepted becomes a promise [Section 2(b)]
(d) Every promise and every set of promises forming consideration for each other is an agreement [Section 2(e)] - Partnership shall NOT be treated as a partnership at will when:
(a) No provision is made in the partnership agreement.
(b) The agreement provides that the partnership shall continue until only two partners remain.
(c) There is no provision regarding determination of the partnership.
(d) A fixed-term partnership continues after expiry without a fresh agreement fixing the duration. - A warranty is a stipulation collateral to the main purpose of the contract, the breach of which gives the buyer the right to:
(a) Repudiate the contract
(b) Reject the goods
(c) Claim damages
(d) Get the goods replaced as per the original contract - In which of the following situations will a person be deemed to be a partner in a firm?
(a) A manager receives a share of profits instead of a fixed salary.
(b) A money lender receives a share of profits towards repayment of a loan.
(c) A widow of a deceased partner is admitted as a partner with the consent of the other partners and shares the profits.
(d) An agent receives a share of profits for better performance. - Where there is an unconditional contract for the sale of specific goods in a deliverable state, the property in the goods passes to the buyer:
(a) When delivery is taken by the buyer.
(b) When the contract of sale is made.
(c) When the seller offers delivery.
(d) When payment is made. - Which of the following is an Inland Instrument under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?
(a) A promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque drawn or made in India and payable in India or drawn upon a person resident in India.
(b) A promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque drawn in India and payable outside India.
(c) A promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque drawn outside India but payable in India.
(d) None of the above. - Which one of the following statements is NOT correct regarding a dormant partner?
(a) A dormant partner does not actively participate in the business.
(b) A dormant partner is not liable to third parties for the firm’s debts.
(c) A dormant partner is entitled to share the profits of the firm.
(d) A dormant partner is generally unknown to outsiders. - Injuria Sine Damnum means:
(a) Legal injury without actual damage
(b) Damage without legal injury
(c) No injury
(d) All of the above - The transit of goods is deemed to come to an end when:
(a) The buyer rejects the goods but the carrier continues to possess them.
(b) The buyer or his agent obtains delivery before the goods reach the destination.
(c) The goods remain with the carrier on behalf of the seller after reaching the destination.
(d) The carrier wrongfully refuses delivery to the buyer. - Which of the following statements is NOT related to the Memorandum of Association?
(a) It informs prospective shareholders about the company’s objects.
(b) It defines the internal management, rights and duties of directors and members.
(c) It enables outsiders to know the company’s objects.
(d) It defines the powers and scope of the company. - Under the Companies Act, 2013, which of the following is NOT a related party with reference to a company?
(a) A firm in which a director, manager or his relative is a partner.
(b) A private company in which a director or manager is a member or director.
(c) An advocate rendering professional legal services to the company.
(d) A person on whose advice, directions or instructions a director or manager is accustomed to act. - The “Henry VIII Clause” relates to the power of:
(a) Removing difficulties
(b) Granting exemptions
(c) Inclusion of provisions
(d) Supplying details - Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Delegated legislation can be challenged on the ground of excessive delegation.
(b) Conditional legislation can be challenged on the ground of excessive delegation.
(c) Delegated legislation involves delegation of rule-making power to the Executive.
(d) In conditional legislation, the law does not come into force immediately. - Which of the following cases is regarded as the “Magna Carta of Natural Justice”?
(a) Ridge v. Baldwin (1964)
(b) Cooper v. Wandsworth Board of Works (1863)
(c) R. v. Camborne Justices (1955)
(d) R. v. Sussex Justices (1924) - The decision in A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India is primarily related to:
(a) Personal bias
(b) Official bias
(c) Pecuniary bias
(d) Subject-matter bias - Which of the following does NOT relate to the rule Nemo Judex in Causa Sua?
(a) No one should be a judge in his own cause.
(b) Judges must be free from bias.
(c) Justice must not only be done but must also be seen to be done.
(d) No person should be condemned without being given an opportunity of being heard. - A writ of Mandamus generally cannot be issued against:
(a) The Central Government
(b) The State Government
(c) A State-owned Corporation performing public duties
(d) A private individual having no public duty - Under Hanafi Muslim Law, the mother is entitled to the custody (Hizanat) of a male child until he attains the age of:
(a) 5 years
(b) 6 years
(c) 7 years
(d) Puberty - Inevitable accident means:
(a) An Act of God
(b) An unexpected injury that could not be foreseen and avoided
(c) An unexpected injury that could have been foreseen and avoided
(d) Both (a) and (b) - No-fault liability means:
(a) Liability for damage caused through negligence
(b) Liability for damage caused through fault
(c) Liability even without negligence or fault
(d) Freedom from liability - Tort is a violation of:
(a) A right in personam
(b) A right in rem
(c) Both rights in personam and in rem
(d) Neither - Ram saw two horses running loose and causing traffic obstruction. While trying to stop them, he was injured. Can he claim damages from the owner?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Maybe
(d) None of the above
Answer Key
1-d 2-b 3-b 4-d 5-c 6-d 7-b 8-d 9-c 10-b 11-b 12-d 13-b 14-d 15-a 16-c 17-d 18-b 19-a 20-a 21-d 22-c 23-c 24-d 25-b 26-c 27-b 28-b 29-a 30-b 31-c 32-c 33-b 34-a 35-c 36-a 37-b 38-b 39-c 40-a 41-b 42-a 43-a 44-d 45-d 46-c 47-b 48-c 49-b 50-a
– Team Lawyer Talks
