Prepare for Judicial Services examinations with this advanced set of 50 MCQs covering Constitution, IPC, CrPC, CPC, Evidence, Contract, Tort, Jurisprudence, and landmark legal principles. Designed for aspirants aiming to strengthen conceptual clarity, analytical reasoning, and Bare Act-based preparation.
1. Article 13 of the Constitution deals with:
A. Citizenship
B. Fundamental Duties
C. Laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights
D. Emergency provisions
Answer: C
2. True or False: Judicial review is part of the basic structure doctrine.
Answer: True
3. “Procedure established by law” under Article 21 was expanded in:
A. AK Gopalan
B. Maneka Gandhi
C. Golaknath
D. Kesavananda Bharati
Answer: B
4. The doctrine of severability means:
A. Entire statute becomes void
B. Valid portion survives after invalid part removed
C. Law automatically repealed
D. Legislature loses competence
Answer: B
5. Doctrine of eclipse applies to:
A. Post-constitutional laws
B. Pre-constitutional laws violating Fundamental Rights
C. Emergency laws only
D. Tax statutes only
Answer: B
6. True or False: Parliament can destroy basic structure through amendment.
Answer: False
7. “Audi alteram partem” means:
A. No one should judge own cause
B. Hear the other side
C. Equity follows law
D. Law protects rights
Answer: B
8. “Nemo judex in causa sua” relates to:
A. Bias rule
B. Rule of evidence
C. Criminal liability
D. Delegated legislation
Answer: A
9. Res judicata is provided under:
A. Section 9 CPC
B. Section 10 CPC
C. Section 11 CPC
D. Section 80 CPC
Answer: C
10. True or False: Res sub judice is governed under Section 10 CPC.
Answer: True
11. Caveat is filed under:
A. Section 144 CPC
B. Section 148A CPC
C. Section 151 CPC
D. Section 80 CPC
Answer: B
12. Review petition generally lies before:
A. Higher court
B. Same court
C. Executive authority
D. Tribunal only
Answer: B
13. Appeal is considered a:
A. Natural right
B. Constitutional convention
C. Statutory right
D. Fundamental right
Answer: C
14. True or False: CPC is procedural law.
Answer: True
15. FIR is registered under:
A. Section 154 CrPC
B. Section 156 CrPC
C. Section 161 CrPC
D. Section 173 CrPC
Answer: A
16. Anticipatory bail is provided under:
A. Section 436 CrPC
B. Section 437 CrPC
C. Section 438 CrPC
D. Section 439 CrPC
Answer: C
17. Cognizance of offence is taken under:
A. Section 154 CrPC
B. Section 156 CrPC
C. Section 190 CrPC
D. Section 200 CrPC
Answer: C
18. True or False: FIR is substantive evidence.
Answer: False
19. Police report is submitted under:
A. Section 161 CrPC
B. Section 164 CrPC
C. Section 173 CrPC
D. Section 190 CrPC
Answer: C
20. Double jeopardy protection is guaranteed under:
A. Article 19
B. Article 20(2)
C. Article 21
D. Article 22
Answer: B
21. Under Evidence Act, estoppel is provided under:
A. Section 114
B. Section 115
C. Section 116
D. Section 117
Answer: B
22. True or False: Hearsay evidence is generally inadmissible.
Answer: True
23. Dying declaration is relevant under:
A. Section 24 Evidence Act
B. Section 32 Evidence Act
C. Section 45 Evidence Act
D. Section 65 Evidence Act
Answer: B
24. Expert opinion is relevant under:
A. Section 32 Evidence Act
B. Section 45 Evidence Act
C. Section 73 Evidence Act
D. Section 114 Evidence Act
Answer: B
25. Burden of proof generally lies upon:
A. Judge
B. Witness
C. Person asserting fact
D. Police authority
Answer: C
26. True or False: Accomplice evidence is substantive evidence.
Answer: True
27. Under IPC, “dishonestly” is defined under:
A. Section 23
B. Section 24
C. Section 25
D. Section 52
Answer: B
28. Theft is defined under:
A. Section 378 IPC
B. Section 390 IPC
C. Section 405 IPC
D. Section 415 IPC
Answer: A
29. “Mens rea” generally signifies:
A. Guilty act
B. Guilty intention
C. Wrongful restraint
D. Negligence
Answer: B
30. True or False: Every culpable homicide amounts to murder.
Answer: False
31. Common intention is provided under:
A. Section 34 IPC
B. Section 149 IPC
C. Section 120A IPC
D. Section 511 IPC
Answer: A
32. Criminal conspiracy is defined under:
A. Section 107 IPC
B. Section 120A IPC
C. Section 149 IPC
D. Section 503 IPC
Answer: B
33. Right of private defence extending to death is under:
A. Section 96 IPC
B. Section 97 IPC
C. Section 100 IPC
D. Section 101 IPC
Answer: C
34. True or False: Mistake of law is valid defence under IPC.
Answer: False
35. Grave and sudden provocation is:
A. General exception
B. Exception to murder
C. Tort defence
D. Civil remedy
Answer: B
36. Consideration under Indian Contract Act may move from:
A. Promisee only
B. Promisor only
C. Third party
D. Court
Answer: C
37. True or False: Minor’s agreement is void ab initio.
Answer: True
38. “Consensus ad idem” means:
A. Compensation
B. Meeting of minds
C. Legal injury
D. Quasi contract
Answer: B
39. Quantum meruit claim is based on:
A. Equity
B. Crime
C. Tort
D. Constitutional law
Answer: A
40. True or False: Every agreement is enforceable contract.
Answer: False
41. “Volenti non fit injuria” is defence in:
A. Contract
B. Tort
C. Crime
D. Evidence
Answer: B
42. Rylands v. Fletcher established:
A. Negligence
B. Absolute liability
C. Strict liability
D. Constitutional tort
Answer: C
43. Absolute liability principle in India evolved through:
A. Kesavananda Bharati
B. MC Mehta
C. Golaknath
D. Maneka Gandhi
Answer: B
44. True or False: Negligence requires duty of care.
Answer: True
45. “Injuria sine damno” means:
A. Damage without injury
B. Legal injury without actual damage
C. Tort without remedy
D. Strict liability without fault
Answer: B
46. “Ubi jus ibi remedium” means:
A. Equity follows law
B. Ignorance excuses no one
C. Where there is a right, there is a remedy
D. Law is supreme
Answer: C
47. True or False: Article 32 itself is a Fundamental Right.
Answer: True
48. Lok Adalat award is:
A. Advisory only
B. Binding on parties
C. Temporary order
D. Automatically appealable
Answer: B
49. Standard of proof in criminal cases is:
A. Suspicion
B. Beyond reasonable doubt
C. Preponderance of probabilities
D. Prima facie proof
Answer: B
50. Standard of proof in civil cases is:
A. Beyond reasonable doubt
B. Absolute certainty
C. Preponderance of probabilities
D. Suspicion
Answer: C
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