Strengthen your AIBE preparation with this advanced set of 50 MCQs covering Professional Ethics, IPC, CrPC, CPC, Evidence Act, Constitution, Contract, Tort, and practical legal application. Designed according to the conceptual and Bare Act-oriented pattern of the All India Bar Examination.
1. The Bar Council of India is constituted under:
A. Section 3 Advocates Act
B. Section 4 Advocates Act
C. Section 5 Advocates Act
D. Section 7 Advocates Act
Answer: B
2. True or False: An advocate has absolute right to practice in every court without restrictions.
Answer: False
3. Professional misconduct proceedings are conducted by:
A. Supreme Court
B. State Government
C. Disciplinary Committee of Bar Council
D. District Court
Answer: C
4. “Ubi jus ibi remedium” means:
A. Law is supreme
B. Equity follows law
C. Where there is a right, there is a remedy
D. Ignorance excuses no one
Answer: C
5. Contingency fee agreement by advocate is:
A. Valid
B. Illegal
C. Optional
D. Mandatory
Answer: B
6. True or False: Advocates may advertise freely through television and newspapers.
Answer: False
7. Res judicata is governed under:
A. Section 9 CPC
B. Section 10 CPC
C. Section 11 CPC
D. Section 80 CPC
Answer: C
8. Res sub judice is provided under:
A. Section 9 CPC
B. Section 10 CPC
C. Section 11 CPC
D. Section 151 CPC
Answer: B
9. Caveat is filed under:
A. Section 80 CPC
B. Section 144 CPC
C. Section 148A CPC
D. Section 151 CPC
Answer: C
10. True or False: CPC is procedural law.
Answer: True
11. FIR is registered under:
A. Section 154 CrPC
B. Section 161 CrPC
C. Section 164 CrPC
D. Section 173 CrPC
Answer: A
12. Anticipatory bail is granted under:
A. Section 436 CrPC
B. Section 437 CrPC
C. Section 438 CrPC
D. Section 439 CrPC
Answer: C
13. True or False: FIR is substantive evidence.
Answer: False
14. Police report under CrPC is filed under:
A. Section 161 CrPC
B. Section 164 CrPC
C. Section 173 CrPC
D. Section 190 CrPC
Answer: C
15. Cognizance of offence is taken under:
A. Section 154 CrPC
B. Section 156 CrPC
C. Section 190 CrPC
D. Section 200 CrPC
Answer: C
16. Under Evidence Act, estoppel is contained under:
A. Section 114
B. Section 115
C. Section 116
D. Section 117
Answer: B
17. True or False: Hearsay evidence is generally inadmissible.
Answer: True
18. Dying declaration is admissible under:
A. Section 24 Evidence Act
B. Section 32 Evidence Act
C. Section 45 Evidence Act
D. Section 65 Evidence Act
Answer: B
19. Expert opinion becomes relevant under:
A. Section 32 Evidence Act
B. Section 45 Evidence Act
C. Section 73 Evidence Act
D. Section 114 Evidence Act
Answer: B
20. Burden of proof generally lies on:
A. Judge
B. Police officer
C. Person asserting fact
D. Witness
Answer: C
21. Under IPC, “dishonestly” is defined under:
A. Section 23 IPC
B. Section 24 IPC
C. Section 25 IPC
D. Section 52 IPC
Answer: B
22. Theft is defined under:
A. Section 378 IPC
B. Section 390 IPC
C. Section 405 IPC
D. Section 420 IPC
Answer: A
23. True or False: Every murder is culpable homicide.
Answer: True
24. Common intention is embodied under:
A. Section 34 IPC
B. Section 149 IPC
C. Section 120A IPC
D. Section 511 IPC
Answer: A
25. Criminal conspiracy is defined under:
A. Section 107 IPC
B. Section 120A IPC
C. Section 149 IPC
D. Section 503 IPC
Answer: B
26. “Mens rea” generally means:
A. Guilty act
B. Guilty intention
C. Wrongful restraint
D. Strict liability
Answer: B
27. True or False: Mistake of law is valid defence under IPC.
Answer: False
28. Right of private defence causing death is governed under:
A. Section 96 IPC
B. Section 97 IPC
C. Section 100 IPC
D. Section 101 IPC
Answer: C
29. Grave and sudden provocation is:
A. General exception
B. Exception to murder
C. Tort defence
D. Civil wrong
Answer: B
30. “Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea” means:
A. Act alone creates crime
B. Guilty act with guilty mind creates offence
C. Law excuses ignorance
D. Equity prevails over law
Answer: B
31. Consideration under Contract Act may move from:
A. Promisee only
B. Promisor only
C. Third party
D. Court
Answer: C
32. True or False: Minor’s agreement is void ab initio.
Answer: True
33. “Consensus ad idem” means:
A. Compensation
B. Meeting of minds
C. Legal injury
D. Estoppel
Answer: B
34. Privity of contract means:
A. Stranger can sue
B. Only parties can sue
C. Contract without consideration
D. Void agreement
Answer: B
35. Quantum meruit claim is based on:
A. Equity
B. Crime
C. Constitutional law
D. Tort
Answer: A
36. True or False: Damnum sine injuria is actionable.
Answer: False
37. “Volenti non fit injuria” is defence in:
A. Contract
B. Tort
C. Evidence
D. Crime
Answer: B
38. Rylands v. Fletcher established:
A. Negligence
B. Absolute liability
C. Strict liability
D. Constitutional tort
Answer: C
39. Absolute liability principle in India evolved in:
A. Kesavananda Bharati
B. MC Mehta
C. Golaknath
D. Maneka Gandhi
Answer: B
40. True or False: Negligence requires duty of care.
Answer: True
41. Article 14 guarantees:
A. Freedom of speech
B. Equality before law
C. Freedom of religion
D. Constitutional remedies
Answer: B
42. Judicial review forms part of:
A. Directive Principles
B. Basic structure doctrine
C. Emergency provisions
D. Parliamentary procedure
Answer: B
43. True or False: Parliament can destroy basic structure through amendment.
Answer: False
44. Doctrine of eclipse applies to:
A. Post-constitutional laws
B. Pre-constitutional laws
C. Tax statutes only
D. Criminal laws only
Answer: B
45. “Audi alteram partem” means:
A. Hear the other side
B. No one should judge own cause
C. Law is supreme
D. Delay defeats equity
Answer: A
46. “Nemo judex in causa sua” means:
A. Evidence must be direct
B. No one should judge own cause
C. Justice delayed is justice denied
D. Ignorance excuses no one
Answer: B
47. True or False: Article 32 itself is a Fundamental Right.
Answer: True
48. Lok Adalat award is:
A. Advisory only
B. Binding on parties
C. Temporary order
D. Automatically appealable
Answer: B
49. Standard of proof in civil cases is:
A. Beyond reasonable doubt
B. Absolute certainty
C. Preponderance of probabilities
D. Prima facie proof
Answer: C
50. Standard of proof in criminal cases is:
A. Suspicion
B. Beyond reasonable doubt
C. Preponderance of probabilities
D. Prima facie satisfaction
Answer: B
– Team Lawyer Talks