Carefully curated set of 50 analytical questions for LLM entrance preparation, focusing on legal reasoning, case-based concepts, and doctrinal clarity aligned with CLAT PG pattern and other LLM entrance exams.
1. Article 21 has been interpreted to include:
A. Right to privacy
B. Right to livelihood
C. Right to dignity
D. All of the above
Ans: D
2. Assertion (A): Basic Structure doctrine limits Parliament’s amending power.
Reason (R): Parliament can amend any part of Constitution without limitation.
A. Both correct
B. A correct, R wrong
C. A wrong, R correct
D. Both wrong
Ans: B
3. “Procedure established by law” after judicial interpretation means:
A. Any procedure
B. Fair, just and reasonable procedure
C. Legislative procedure only
D. Executive procedure
Ans: B
4. Doctrine of proportionality is applied in:
A. Criminal law
B. Administrative law
C. Contract law
D. Tort law
Ans: B
5. Judicial review is exercised to:
A. Amend Constitution
B. Review legislative/executive action
C. Make laws
D. Conduct trials
Ans: B
6. Mens rea refers to:
A. Physical act
B. Guilty mind
C. Motive
D. Consequence
Ans: B
7. Assertion (A): Motive and intention are distinct.
Reason (R): Intention relates to act, motive relates to reason.
A. Both correct, R explains A
B. Both correct, R not explanation
C. A correct, R wrong
D. A wrong, R correct
Ans: A
8. Strict liability excludes:
A. Intention
B. Negligence
C. Both A & B
D. None
Ans: C
9. Which case established strict liability?
A. Donoghue v Stevenson
B. Rylands v Fletcher
C. Carlill v Carbolic
D. Ashby v White
Ans: B
10. Negligence requires:
A. Duty
B. Breach
C. Damage
D. All
Ans: D
11. Burden of proof lies on prosecution in criminal cases.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
12. Assertion (A): Confession to police is inadmissible.
Reason (R): Law aims to prevent coercion.
A. Both correct, R explains A
B. Both correct, R not explanation
C. A correct, R wrong
D. A wrong, R correct
Ans: A
13. Dying declaration is admissible because:
A. Person unlikely to lie
B. No cross-examination needed
C. Law presumes truth
D. All
Ans: D
14. Leading questions are:
A. Always allowed
B. Allowed in cross-examination
C. Never allowed
D. Only by court
Ans: B
15. Evidence Act applies to:
A. Court proceedings
B. Arbitration
C. Police investigation
D. All
Ans: A
16. Consideration must be:
A. Lawful
B. Adequate
C. Immediate
D. Written
Ans: A
17. Assertion (A): Agreement without consideration is void.
Reason (R): Consideration is essential for contract.
A. Both correct, R explains A
B. Both correct, R not explanation
C. A correct, R wrong
D. A wrong, R correct
Ans: A
18. Void agreement is:
A. Enforceable
B. Not enforceable
C. Illegal
D. Voidable
Ans: B
19. Free consent excludes:
A. Coercion
B. Fraud
C. Misrepresentation
D. All
Ans: D
20. Minor’s contract is:
A. Valid
B. Void
C. Voidable
D. Illegal
Ans: B
21. Natural justice includes:
A. Hearing rule
B. Bias rule
C. Both
D. None
Ans: C
22. Assertion (A): Audi alteram partem ensures fairness.
Reason (R): It allows both parties to be heard.
A. Both correct, R explains A
B. Both correct, R not explanation
C. A correct, R wrong
D. A wrong, R correct
Ans: A
23. Doctrine of legitimate expectation applies in:
A. Criminal law
B. Administrative law
C. Contract law
D. Tort
Ans: B
24. Ultra vires means:
A. Within power
B. Beyond power
C. Judicial power
D. Legislative power
Ans: B
25. Delegated legislation is controlled by:
A. Judiciary
B. Legislature
C. Both
D. None
Ans: C
26. Ratio decidendi is:
A. Binding principle
B. Observation
C. Suggestion
D. Opinion
Ans: A
27. Obiter dicta is:
A. Binding
B. Not binding
C. Law
D. Statute
Ans: B
28. Stare decisis ensures:
A. Certainty
B. Flexibility
C. Delay
D. Confusion
Ans: A
29. Judicial precedent is binding on:
A. Same court
B. Lower courts
C. Higher courts
D. None
Ans: B
30. Assertion (A): Supreme Court decisions are binding.
Reason (R): Article 141 provides this.
A. Both correct, R explains A
B. Both correct, R not explanation
C. A correct, R wrong
D. A wrong, R correct
Ans: A
31. Limitation law bars:
A. Right
B. Remedy
C. Evidence
D. Cause
Ans: B
32. Cause of action means:
A. Right to sue
B. Evidence
C. Judgment
D. Decree
Ans: A
33. Res judicata prevents:
A. Multiple suits
B. Re-litigation
C. Parallel trials
D. All
Ans: D
34. Review lies before:
A. Same court
B. Higher court
C. Supreme Court
D. Tribunal
Ans: A
35. Appeal lies before:
A. Same court
B. Higher court
C. Police
D. Tribunal only
Ans: B
36. Bail in bailable offence is:
A. Discretion
B. Right
C. Prohibited
D. Conditional
Ans: B
37. Assertion (A): Double jeopardy protects accused.
Reason (R): Same offence cannot be tried twice.
A. Both correct, R explains A
B. Both correct, R not explanation
C. A correct, R wrong
D. A wrong, R correct
Ans: A
38. FIR delay:
A. Always fatal
B. Always ignored
C. Needs explanation
D. Illegal
Ans: C
39. Cognizable offence allows:
A. Warrant
B. No arrest
C. Arrest without warrant
D. Bail only
Ans: C
40. Charge is framed by:
A. Police
B. Magistrate/Judge
C. Victim
D. Lawyer
Ans: B
41. Estoppel prevents:
A. Evidence
B. Denial of previous statement
C. Appeal
D. Judgment
Ans: B
42. Expert opinion is:
A. Binding
B. Advisory
C. Irrelevant
D. Final
Ans: B
43. Injunction is:
A. Criminal remedy
B. Civil remedy
C. Administrative remedy
D. Constitutional remedy
Ans: B
44. Specific performance is:
A. Damages
B. Equitable remedy
C. Criminal penalty
D. Fine
Ans: B
45. Tort law is based on:
A. Contract
B. Civil wrong
C. Crime
D. Statute only
Ans: B
46. Vicarious liability arises when:
A. Self acts
B. Agent acts
C. Crime occurs
D. Contract formed
Ans: B
47. Strict liability requires:
A. Fault
B. No fault
C. Intent
D. Negligence
Ans: B
48. Absolute liability differs because:
A. No exceptions
B. Exceptions allowed
C. Same as strict
D. No liability
Ans: A
49. Judicial activism means:
A. Passive courts
B. Active role in governance
C. No review
D. No power
Ans: B
50. Consistent practice and conceptual clarity lead to:
A. Confusion
B. Accuracy
C. Delay
D. Failure
Ans: B
– Team Lawyer Talks