Challenge your legal intellect with this elite-level set of 50 LLM entrance MCQs designed for aspirants targeting top NLUs and premier postgraduate law programs. Covering advanced Constitutional Law, Jurisprudence, International Law, IPC, Evidence, Contract, and analytical legal reasoning, this set focuses on conceptual precision and exam-oriented difficulty.
1. Which doctrine limits Parliament’s amending power under Article 368?
A. Doctrine of eclipse
B. Doctrine of severability
C. Basic structure doctrine
D. Harmonious construction
Answer: C
2. True or False: Judicial review forms part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
Answer: True
3. The phrase “procedure established by law” under Article 21 was judicially expanded in:
A. AK Gopalan
B. Maneka Gandhi
C. Kesavananda Bharati
D. Golaknath
Answer: B
4. “Rule of recognition” is associated with:
A. Kelsen
B. Hart
C. Austin
D. Savigny
Answer: B
5. Austin’s theory of law is criticized because it:
A. Mixes morality with law
B. Ignores customary law and constitutional limitations
C. Rejects sovereignty
D. Supports natural law
Answer: B
6. True or False: Kelsen’s Grundnorm derives validity from another legal norm.
Answer: False
7. Roscoe Pound viewed law as instrument of:
A. Sovereignty
B. Historical evolution
C. Social engineering
D. Moral theology
Answer: C
8. “Volksgeist” literally means:
A. Sovereign authority
B. Spirit of the people
C. Rule of law
D. Natural justice
Answer: B
9. Opinio juris sive necessitatis refers to:
A. Treaty ratification
B. State succession
C. Belief that practice is legally obligatory
D. Diplomatic immunity
Answer: C
10. True or False: Customary international law requires only state practice.
Answer: False
11. Which theory considers international and municipal law part of single legal order?
A. Dualism
B. Monism
C. Positivism
D. Realism
Answer: B
12. “Jus cogens” norms are:
A. Optional treaty provisions
B. Peremptory norms from which no derogation is permitted
C. Diplomatic customs
D. Judicial precedents only
Answer: B
13. Extradition differs from asylum because extradition involves:
A. Protection from prosecution
B. Surrender of accused person
C. Humanitarian shelter only
D. Political immunity
Answer: B
14. True or False: International Court of Justice has compulsory jurisdiction over all UN member states.
Answer: False
15. Doctrine of proportionality is commonly applied in:
A. Criminal conspiracy
B. Administrative law review
C. Contract formation
D. Evidence admissibility
Answer: B
16. Which case recognized privacy as intrinsic part of Article 21?
A. ADM Jabalpur
B. Puttaswamy
C. Minerva Mills
D. Shankari Prasad
Answer: B
17. True or False: Article 32 itself is a Fundamental Right.
Answer: True
18. Colorable legislation means legislature:
A. Acts beyond territorial limits
B. Indirectly does what it cannot directly do
C. Delegates excessive power
D. Creates retrospective law
Answer: B
19. Doctrine of eclipse applies to:
A. Pre-constitutional laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights
B. Post-constitutional criminal laws
C. Emergency legislation only
D. Constitutional amendments
Answer: A
20. “Audi alteram partem” primarily embodies:
A. Equality doctrine
B. Rule against bias
C. Fair hearing principle
D. Delegated legislation
Answer: C
21. True or False: Promissory estoppel can compel Government to act contrary to statute.
Answer: False
22. “Res ipsa loquitur” is associated with:
A. Criminal liability
B. Tortious negligence
C. Constitutional tort
D. Contractual breach
Answer: B
23. Rylands v. Fletcher established principle of:
A. Absolute liability
B. Strict liability
C. Negligence
D. Vicarious liability
Answer: B
24. Absolute liability in India differs from strict liability because:
A. It applies only to government
B. No exceptions are available
C. Mens rea is essential
D. Compensation is nominal
Answer: B
25. “Novus actus interveniens” relates to:
A. Consent
B. Remoteness of damages
C. Defamation
D. Constitutional tort
Answer: B
26. “Injuria sine damno” means:
A. Damage without legal injury
B. Legal injury without actual damage
C. No remedy without loss
D. Strict liability without fault
Answer: B
27. Consideration under Indian Contract Act may be:
A. Past
B. Present
C. Future
D. All of the above
Answer: D
28. True or False: Privity of consideration is mandatory under Indian law.
Answer: False
29. Quantum meruit claim generally arises when:
A. Contract fully performed
B. Partial performance accepted
C. Agreement illegal
D. Minor enters agreement
Answer: B
30. Anticipatory breach permits aggrieved party to:
A. Wait compulsorily till due date
B. Sue immediately for damages
C. Seek criminal remedy only
D. Avoid all remedies
Answer: B
31. Under IPC, culpable homicide becomes murder when:
A. Intention absent
B. Exceptions to Section 300 apply
C. Ingredients of Section 300 are satisfied
D. Only negligence proven
Answer: C
32. True or False: Motive and intention are identical concepts in criminal law.
Answer: False
33. Strict liability offences generally exclude requirement of:
A. Actus reus
B. Mens rea
C. Punishment
D. Jurisdiction
Answer: B
34. Section 149 IPC creates liability based on:
A. Contractual relationship
B. Common object of unlawful assembly
C. Criminal negligence
D. Civil conspiracy
Answer: B
35. Grave and sudden provocation under IPC:
A. Completely excuses offence
B. Reduces murder to culpable homicide
C. Converts offence into negligence
D. Removes actus reus
Answer: B
36. True or False: Hearsay evidence is admissible without exceptions.
Answer: False
37. Dying declaration is admissible because law presumes:
A. Police verification mandatory
B. Person nearing death is unlikely to lie
C. Magistrate recording compulsory
D. It is documentary evidence
Answer: B
38. Section 27 Evidence Act partially validates:
A. Police confession
B. Discovery of fact from accused information
C. Character evidence
D. Secondary evidence
Answer: B
39. Burden of proof may shift due to:
A. Presumptions
B. Admissions
C. Statutory provisions
D. All of the above
Answer: D
40. True or False: Accomplice evidence is substantive evidence.
Answer: True
41. Res judicata is based on principle of:
A. Public policy and finality of litigation
B. Criminal liability
C. Constitutional supremacy
D. Equity only
Answer: A
42. Review differs from appeal because review lies before:
A. Appellate court
B. Same court
C. Executive authority
D. Tribunal only
Answer: B
43. True or False: Appeal is an inherent right.
Answer: False
44. Caveat under CPC is intended to:
A. Delay proceedings
B. Prevent ex parte orders
C. Stay execution automatically
D. Transfer suit
Answer: B
45. Arbitration differs from mediation because arbitrator:
A. Facilitates settlement only
B. Delivers binding decision
C. Acts as witness
D. Has no adjudicatory role
Answer: B
46. Doctrine restricting excessive delegation is:
A. Eclipse
B. Essential legislative function
C. Pith and substance
D. Waiver
Answer: B
47. True or False: Parliament may abolish judicial review completely through amendment.
Answer: False
48. Public Interest Litigation expanded through relaxation of:
A. Judicial review
B. Locus standi
C. Delegated legislation
D. Federalism
Answer: B
49. Standard of proof in criminal cases is:
A. Suspicion
B. Preponderance of probabilities
C. Beyond reasonable doubt
D. Prima facie satisfaction
Answer: C
50. Standard of proof in civil cases is generally:
A. Beyond reasonable doubt
B. Conclusive proof
C. Preponderance of probabilities
D. Absolute certainty
Answer: C
– Team Lawyer Talks