Here are 40 law-based questions inspired by the Previous Year Questions (PYQs) of the UP APO (Assistant Prosecution Officer) Prelims Exam. These questions cover major legal subjects like BNS, BNSS, BSA, Constitution, etc., similar to the style of the exam.
Q1. Under Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), which section defines “Murder”?
(a) Section 101
(b) Section 103
(c) Section 105
(d) Section 109
✅ Answer: (b)
📝 Explanation: Section 103 BNS defines murder with intention/knowledge, replacing IPC Section 300.
Q2. Which section of BNS deals with “Theft”?
(a) Section 301
(b) Section 303
(c) Section 304
(d) Section 305
✅ Answer: (c)
📝 Explanation: Section 304 BNS corresponds to theft (earlier IPC 378).
Q3. The concept of “Criminal Conspiracy” in BNS is found under:
(a) Section 57
(b) Section 61
(c) Section 63
(d) Section 66
✅ Answer: (b)
📝 Explanation: Section 61 BNS defines conspiracy, similar to IPC 120A.
Q4. Right to Equality is guaranteed under which Article of the Constitution?
(a) Article 12
(b) Article 14
(c) Article 16
(d) Article 19
✅ Answer: (b)
📝 Explanation: Article 14 ensures equality before law and equal protection of laws.
Q5. Article 21 of the Constitution guarantees:
(a) Freedom of religion
(b) Protection of life and personal liberty
(c) Right to education
(d) Right to property
✅ Answer: (b)
📝 Explanation: Article 21 protects life and personal liberty except by due process of law.
Q6. Under BNSS 2023, FIR is recorded under:
(a) Section 154
(b) Section 173
(c) Section 180
(d) Section 182
✅ Answer: (a)
📝 Explanation: BNSS retains Section 154 for FIR (similar to old CrPC).
Q7. Maintenance to wife, children or parents under BNSS is provided in:
(a) Section 125
(b) Section 144
(c) Section 160
(d) Section 182
✅ Answer: (a)
📝 Explanation: Maintenance proceedings remain under Section 125 BNSS.
Q8. Under BSA 2023, “Primary Evidence” is defined in:
(a) Section 60
(b) Section 62
(c) Section 65
(d) Section 70
✅ Answer: (b)
📝 Explanation: Section 62 defines primary evidence, same concept as Section 62 of Evidence Act.
Q9. The Governor of a State is appointed by:
(a) Chief Minister
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Chief Justice
✅ Answer: (b)
📝 Explanation: Article 155 – Governor is appointed by the President of India.
Q10. Under UP Police Act, the primary duty of police is:
(a) To collect tax
(b) To maintain public order and enforce law
(c) To issue licenses
(d) To conduct elections
✅ Answer: (b)
📝 Explanation: UP Police Act defines police role as maintaining public peace and enforcing laws.
Q11. Which section of BNS defines “Culpable Homicide”?
(a) Section 99
(b) Section 100
(c) Section 101
(d) Section 102
✅ Answer: (c)
📝 Explanation: Section 101 BNS defines culpable homicide, equivalent to IPC Section 299.
Q12. Under BNS, the offence of “Rape” is covered in:
(a) Section 63
(b) Section 64
(c) Section 65
(d) Section 69
✅ Answer: (b)
📝 Explanation: Section 64 BNS replaces IPC Section 375 for definition of rape.
Q13. “Right of Private Defence” in BNS is under:
(a) Sections 34–40
(b) Sections 35–42
(c) Sections 43–49
(d) Sections 50–55
✅ Answer: (a)
📝 Explanation: Just like IPC Sections 96–106, these provisions are now reorganized in BNS 34–40.
Q14. Under BNSS, the section dealing with charge framing is:
(a) Section 226
(b) Section 230
(c) Section 243
(d) Section 251
✅ Answer: (a)
📝 Explanation: Section 226 BNSS corresponds to old CrPC provision related to framing of charge.
Q15. Police custody during investigation under BNSS cannot exceed:
(a) 24 hours
(b) 7 days
(c) 15 days
(d) 60 days
✅ Answer: (c)
📝 Explanation: Similar to CrPC, maximum police custody allowed is 15 days.
Q16. Under BNSS, investigation powers of police are found in:
(a) Section 2
(b) Section 150
(c) Section 173
(d) Section 4
✅ Answer: (b)
📝 Explanation: Section 150 BNSS grants police the power to investigate cognizable offences.
Q17. In BSA, “Dying Declaration” is admissible under:
(a) Section 26(1)
(b) Section 28(2)
(c) Section 32(1)
(d) Section 34
✅ Answer: (c)
📝 Explanation: Section 32(1) BSA retains provision for dying declaration, same as Evidence Act.
Q18. Which Article provides for writs by Supreme Court?
(a) Article 131
(b) Article 32
(c) Article 226
(d) Article 124
✅ Answer: (b)
📝 Explanation: Article 32 empowers Supreme Court to issue writs for enforcement of fundamental rights.
Q19. Directive Principles of State Policy are in:
(a) Part III
(b) Part IV
(c) Part IVA
(d) Part V
✅ Answer: (b)
📝 Explanation: DPSP are contained in Part IV, Article 36 to 51 of the Constitution.
Q20. Under UP Police Act, police officer must obey orders of:
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Magistrate
(c) District Collector
(d) Director General of Police
✅ Answer: (b)
📝 Explanation: Magistrate has supervisory authority over law and order, police must obey lawful commands.
Q21. Under BSA, “Secondary Evidence” is defined in:
(a) Section 60
(b) Section 63
(c) Section 65
(d) Section 70
✅ Answer: (b)
📝 Explanation: Section 63 BSA defines secondary evidence, such as certified copies or copies of documents.
Q22. Under BSA, who may give opinion on handwriting?
(a) Only expert
(b) Only police
(c) Person acquainted with handwriting
(d) Magistrate only
✅ Answer: (c)
📝 Explanation: Section 47 BSA (same as old Evidence Act) allows a person familiar with writing to prove it.
Q23. Which Article of the Constitution deals with “Freedom of Speech and Expression”?
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 15
(c) Article 19(1)(a)
(d) Article 21
✅ Answer: (c)
📝 Explanation: Article 19(1)(a) provides for freedom of speech and expression.
Q24. The Preamble of the Constitution declares India as:
(a) Democratic Republic
(b) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic
(c) Socialist, Secular, Parliamentary State
(d) Federal Union
✅ Answer: (b)
📝 Explanation: The Preamble declares India as Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic.
Q25. Under BNS, the offence of Grievous Hurt is provided in:
(a) Section 116
(b) Section 117
(c) Section 118
(d) Section 119
✅ Answer: (c)
📝 Explanation: Section 118 BNS corresponds to grievous hurt (earlier IPC Section 320).
Q26. Under BNS, Kidnapping for ransom is covered under:
(a) Section 138
(b) Section 139
(c) Section 140
(d) Section 141
✅ Answer: (a)
📝 Explanation: Section 138 BNS defines kidnapping for ransom, replacing IPC Section 364-A.
Q27. BNSS Section 173 relates to:
(a) Warrant
(b) Investigation report (Charge sheet)
(c) Maintenance
(d) Cognizance
✅ Answer: (b)
📝 Explanation: Section 173 BNSS deals with final report / charge-sheet submission by investigating officer.
Q28. Under BNSS, Anticipatory Bail is still governed by:
(a) Section 438
(b) Section 439
(c) Section 440
(d) Not provided
✅ Answer: (a)
📝 Explanation: Section 438 continues for anticipatory bail under BNSS like CrPC.
Q29. Article 22 provides protection against:
(a) Arrest and detention
(b) Self-incrimination
(c) Double jeopardy
(d) Forced labor
✅ Answer: (a)
📝 Explanation: Article 22 gives procedural safeguards to arrested persons, including right to be informed & lawyer.
Q30. Under UP Police Act, a police officer must produce arrested person before Magistrate within:
(a) 12 hours
(b) 24 hours
(c) 48 hours
(d) 7 days
✅ Answer: (b)
📝 Explanation: Constitutional and police mandate: arrested must be produced within 24 hours excluding journey time.
Q31. Under BNS, “Criminal Intimidation” is defined in:
(a) Section 122
(b) Section 123
(c) Section 124
(d) Section 125
✅ Answer: (b)
📝 Explanation: Section 123 BNS defines criminal intimidation as threat to cause injury to person, reputation, or property.
Q32. Under BNSS, a Magistrate can order preventive detention up to:
(a) 1 month
(b) 3 months
(c) 6 months
(d) 12 months
✅ Answer: (c)
📝 Explanation: BNSS mirrors preventive detention laws; magistrate can order up to 3 months initially.
Q33. Under BSA, which section allows expert opinion on digital evidence?
(a) Section 65B
(b) Section 66
(c) Section 67
(d) Section 70
✅ Answer: (a)
📝 Explanation: Section 65B BSA (as in Evidence Act) allows electronic records as evidence through expert certification.
Q34. Article 226 empowers:
(a) High Court to issue writs
(b) Supreme Court to review laws
(c) President to legislate in emergency
(d) Parliament to amend Constitution
✅ Answer: (a)
📝 Explanation: Article 226 allows High Court to issue writs for enforcement of rights.
Q35. Under UP Police Act, a “Special Police Officer” is appointed by:
(a) District Magistrate
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Director General of Police
(d) Home Secretary
✅ Answer: (a)
📝 Explanation: District Magistrate can appoint SPOs for local law and order duties under UP Police Act.
Q36. Under BNS, “Attempt to commit an offence” is punishable under:
(a) Section 140
(b) Section 141
(c) Section 142
(d) Section 143
✅ Answer: (c)
📝 Explanation: Section 142 defines attempt to commit an offence, similar to IPC Section 511.
Q37. Under BNSS, cognizance of offences without a police report is under:
(a) Section 190
(b) Section 191
(c) Section 192
(d) Section 193
✅ Answer: (a)
📝 Explanation: Section 190 BNSS allows magistrate to take cognizance of offences on own knowledge.
Q38. Under Constitution, the “Right to Constitutional Remedies” is in:
(a) Article 19
(b) Article 32
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 14
✅ Answer: (b)
📝 Explanation: Article 32 empowers Supreme Court to protect Fundamental Rights through writs.
Q39. BSA section on “Expert Evidence” in court includes:
(a) Section 45
(b) Section 47
(c) Section 50
(d) Section 52
✅ Answer: (a)
📝 Explanation: Section 45 BSA provides for opinion of experts regarding science, art, handwriting, or identity.
Q40. Under UP Police Act, preventive action for maintaining public order is taken by:
(a) Police Officer
(b) Magistrate
(c) Collector
(d) Governor
✅ Answer: (a)
📝 Explanation: Police have authority to act preventively to maintain law and order under UP Police Act.
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